Expert: Dean Gade - 8/11/2009

Question
QUESTION: Hello. My name is James. The first epistle of John begins with the words, "...which WE have heard, which WE have seen with our eyes, which WE have looked at and our hands have touched..." Who are all these people? It was 55 years ago when Jesus walked the earth (assuming A.D. 85 was the date of this epistle). How could Apostle John be in the company of a multitude of eyewitnesses at such a late date? Thank you for your help.

ANSWER: James,  

This is a "WE" and "YOU" discourse as verse 2 and 3 show:

1 Jn 1:2-3
 2 The life appeared; WE have seen it and testify to it, and WE proclaim to YOU  the eternal life, which was with the Father and has appeared to US. 3 WE proclaim to YOU what WE have seen and heard, so that YOU also may have fellowship with US.  
NIV

The "WE" were the Apostles.
These were especially called to be ones who knew Jesus personally over the three years of His ministry, sent ("apostle" in Greek means "sent ones") to give eye witness accounts.

Peter uses this same form in his letter:

2 Pe 1:16-19
16 WE did not follow cleverly invented stories when WE told YOU about the power and coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, but WE were eyewitnesses of his majesty. 17 For he received honor and glory from God the Father when the voice came to him from the Majestic Glory, saying, "This is my Son, whom I love; with him I am well pleased."   18 WE ourselves heard this voice that came from heaven when we were with him on the sacred mountain.

19 And WE have the word of the prophets made more certain, and YOU will do well to pay attention to it, as to a light shining in a dark place, until the day dawns and the morning star rises in YOUR hearts.
NIV

Even though Judas Iscariot turned against Jesus,as an Apostle, he needed to be replaced.  Notice the requirements of the one who was to replace him, namely one who was an "eye witness" and could tell others what he saw, heard, etc.

Ac 1:21-22
21 Therefore it is necessary to choose one of the men who have been with us the whole time the Lord Jesus went in and out among us, 22 beginning from John's baptism to the time when Jesus was taken up from us. For one of these must become a witness with us of his resurrection."
NIV




---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------

QUESTION: Thank you for your reply. You have answered that the "WE" in 1Jo 1:1 are the apostles. How then could Apostle John be in the company of other apostles at such a late date? Weren't the other apostles martyred by this time? If there were other apostles with John at Ephesus where this epistle was written, wouldn't this be a deviation from church tradition? Thank you for your help.

ANSWER: Neither John nor Peter were accompanied by other of the apostles when they wrote. The use of "we" is one of authority of the office of the apostles.  It is not uncommon, even today, for one person to speak for a group although only one of the group is present. Peter and John were known as the apostles who were with Jesus during His ministry while still in the flesh.

Paul doesn't often use "we" but most often uses "I".  His ministry as an apostle was different because of his earlier persecution of the church. But there are times when he includes himself with the other apostles..as in the following:

1 Co 4:8-14
9 For it seems to me that God has put us apostles on display at the end of the procession, like men condemned to die in the arena. We have been made a spectacle to the whole universe, to angels as well as to men. 10 We are fools for Christ, but you are so wise in Christ! We are weak, but you are strong! You are honored, we are dishonored! 11 To this very hour we go hungry and thirsty, we are in rags, we are brutally treated, we are homeless. 12 We work hard with our own hands. When we are cursed, we bless; when we are persecuted, we endure it; 13 when we are slandered, we answer kindly. Up to this moment we have become the scum of the earth, the refuse of the world.
14 I am not writing this to shame you, but to warn you, as my dear children.
NIV

1 Co 15:9
9 For I am the least of the apostles and do not even deserve to be called an apostle , because I persecuted the church of God.
NIV

You will also find Peter switching from "I" to "We" right in the middle of a discourse and it is obvious that the "We" refers to himself AND the other apostles who witnessed to the Lord Jesus Christ.

2 Pe 1:13-16
13 I think it is right to refresh your memory as long as I live in the tent of this body, 14 because I know that I will soon put it aside, as our Lord Jesus Christ has made clear to me. 15 And I will make every effort to see that after my departure you will always be able to remember these things.
16 We did not follow cleverly invented stories when we told you about the power and coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, but we were eyewitnesses of his majesty.
NIV


---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------

QUESTION: Thank you for your reply. You have answered that Apostle John is speaking on behalf of the group of his fellow apostles -- apostles who are probably long dead (but with the Lord in heaven). This is, indeed, an unusual interpretation! Are there others who have the same view? Is this the common view regarding this issue? Thank you for your help.

Answer


Having gone to my library I have found that  not all commentators agree with me.  One says the "We" is sort of a "royal we" because of John's office. Another only says that it was common to switch from "I" to "we"..without explanation except that it was done in secular writing.   Most don't even mention the use of we.

I took the "first instance" of this switching from "I" to "We" in the first Epistle after the Gospels and Acts.   Of the first three commentators that I read, two did interpret this as I saw it to be.  The two are Matthew Henry and Barnes:

Ro 1:1-6
1:1 Paul, a servant of Christ Jesus, called to be an apostle and set apart for the gospel of God— 2 the gospel he promised beforehand through his prophets in the Holy Scriptures 3 regarding his Son, who as to his human nature was a descendant of David, 4 and who through the Spirit of holiness was declared with power to be the Son of God by his resurrection from the dead: Jesus Christ our Lord. 5 Through him and for his name's sake, we received grace and apostleship to call people from among all the Gentiles to the obedience that comes from faith. 6 And you also are among those who are called to belong to Jesus Christ.
NIV

Matthew Henry
"Ro 1:1-7

3. The fruit of it (v. 5); By whom, that is, by Christ manifested and made known in the gospel, we (Paul and the rest of the ministers) have received grace and apostleship, that is, the favour to be made apostles, Eph 3:8. The apostles were made a spectacle to the world, led a life of toil, and trouble, and hazard, were killed all the day long, and yet Paul reckons the apostleship a favour: we may justly reckon it a great favour to be employed in any work or service for God, whatever difficulties or dangers we may meet with in it."
(from Matthew Henry's Commentary on the Whole Bible)

Barnes:
"Romans 1:5

By whom we have received grace and apostleship, for obedience to the faith among all nations, for his name:

[By whom] The apostle here returns to the subject of the salutation of the Romans, and states to them his authority to address them. That authority he had derived from the Lord Jesus, and not from man. On this fact, that he had received his apostolic commission, not from man, but by the direct authority of Jesus Christ, Paul not infrequently insisted. Gal 1:12, "For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by revelation of Jesus Christ;" 1 Co 15:1-8; Eph 3:1-3.

[We] The plural here is probably put for the singular; see Col 4:3; compare Eph 6:19-20. It was usual for those who were clothed with authority to express themselves in this manner. Perhaps here, however, he refers to the general nature of the apostolic office, as being derived from Jesus Christ, and designs to assure the Romans that "he" had received the apostolic commission as the others had. 'We," the apostles, have received the appointment from Jesus Christ.'
(from Barnes' Notes)




INTERPRETATION of the Bible is always delicate.  Theologians can only be dependent on the immediate context, wider context throughout the Bible, and the leading of the Holy Spirit.  And as you probably know , many disagreements occur among theologians.  I only humbly submit my interpretation of the use of "We" and do not say it is one that is the ONLY one.  But unless a better interpretation comes along, what I have written to you is why I believe John used "We".

What are your views on who John is referring to by the use of "We" instead of "I"?