Expert: Susan Milillo - 4/24/2009

Question
QUESTION: Hi, i'm a follen christian boy who claims that having a girlfriend or sex before marriage is not a sin agaist God but agaist your own body. I think that as christ came, we dont live by the law anymore but by the spirit of God. I also believe that a Christian can not sin as the bible says. I would like clearification in what i believe.

ANSWER: Dear Musa,

Well, you are picking up a Biblical principle in the beginning.  Corinthians says, 'He who sins sexually sins against his own body.'  But it acknowledges in that sentence that he still _sins_.  You see that?    Another really important point is that when you are a Christian, when you have asked Jesus to be your personal Savior from sin, His Holy Spirit comes to indwell you.  Another verse in Corinthians says, "Your body is a temple of the Holy Spirit. You are not your own, you were bought with a price. Therefore glorify God in your body, and in your spirit, which are God's."     So if you sin against your body, who are you really sinning against in all reality?
Whatever I do to my body, I am doing to the Lord, because my body is a temple of His.
I agree, we no longer live by law, but by the Spirit.  But would the Spirit condone sexuality outside of marriage?
"Do not use your freedom to indulge the sinful nature. . . ."
"So I say, walk in the Spirit, and you will not indulge the desires of the sinful nature."   
And think of what the Fruit of the Spirit you want your life to be led by, truly is:  "love, joy, peace, patience, kindness, goodness, faithfulness, gentleness, and self-control." (Gal. 5)
Christ came because no matter how well we adhere outwardly to the commands of God, we all fail miserably in our hearts, in our spirits.
Remember Jesus himself said, "You have heard it was said to the people long ago (under the law), 'Do not commit adultery.' But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart.'"   So, Jesus didn't cast aside the law. He actually took it to a new, much deeper level.  He even said,
"Do not think that I have come to abolish the law and the prophets. I have not come to abolish them, but to fulfill them."
Musa, thank you for sharing your thoughts honestly. I hope you have felt built up in your faith through this response.   Please pray, and seek God in His Word the Bible, and He promises He will reveal Himself to you, more and more fully.  "The Lord is near to those who call upon Him; to those who call upon Him in truth." (Psalms)
Oh, and the last thing.    Christians can and do sin - the difference is that the blood of Christ has already covered it all, and the righteousness of Christ has already been applied to us.
Take a look at James 3 says, 'Brethren (he is addressing Christians) let not many of you presume to be teachers, . . . For we all stumble in many things.  If anyone is without fault in what he says (just one area of Christian conduct), he is a perfect man, able to keep the whole body in check.'  A few verses later (8&9) it says 'But no man can tame the tongue.. . .  With it we bless our God and Father, and with it we curse men, who was made in God's image. . . . My brethren, this out not to be so!"
Any time the Bible - at least the 'letter' books in the New Testament - the 'epistles' - use the word brethren, it means 'fellow Christians.'
SO, let's all cling to the cross!
"For we do not have a High Priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but was in all points tempted as we are, yet without sin.  Let us therefore come boldly to the throne of grace, that we may obtain mercy and find grace to help in time of need"  
Hebrews 4:15-16

Love and prayers,
SM

---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------

QUESTION: I have been studying the book of 1st John as a whole and I am a bit concerned because the book is making confusions among many Christians. The book shows us that if we say we have no sin,we deceive our selves and the truth is not in us. And we also make him a lier 1st John 1 verse 8-10.......... As you contineu 1st John 3 verse 8-10 and 5 verse 17-20 says that who ever sins is of the devil for those who are born of God does not sin.............. i want to know the revelation of this book because i know that the word of GOD cannot and does not contradict it self.          
thank you.

Answer
Dear Musa,

   Well, I think the nuances of the word 'sin' changes throughout the book.   I have been puzzled by I John as well, so I understand your confusion.   What I have always been taught, which I think makes sense, is that when it says that 'whoever sins is of the devil', it means - whoever practices/lives in/loves and abides in, etc... sin.  
   It's like when you are in a conversation with someone, I think.  They may use a word one way in the beginning of the conversation, and part way through start using the word in another way. They don't always give us a signal that they are switching to another type of meaning, but usually the context makes it apparent to us.


Is this helpful?

Love,
SM