Expert: Brent Jobe, DVM - 5/27/2009

Question
QUESTION: I HAVE A NEIGHBOR WHOM BELIEVES INFANTS ARE BORN SINNERS UNTIL THEY ACCEPT THE GOSPEL ; COULD YOU PLEASE SEND ME SCRIPTURES TO PROVE HER WRONG DUE TOWARDS FROM WHAT I RESEARCHED , INFANTS & YOUNG CHILDREN ARE INNOCENT UNTIL THEY REACH THE AGE OF ACCOUNTABILITY [WHATEVER THAT IS] ://

ANSWER: Hi.  I'm sorry.  This question and a follow-up from another question went to the Spam folder for some reason.  The whole concept to which you refer is termed "Total Hereditary Depravity", and revolves around the question:  "Are infants born sinners?"

Your statement:  "Infants and young children are innocent (or 'safe') until they reach the age or mentality of accountability" is 100% true.  All I would add is that I personally would stick with the words "innocent" or "safe".

To answer her you have to drive a peg down and keep insisting upon this one thing:  WHAT IS SIN?  Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law. (I John 3:4) and "Therefore to him that knoweth to do good, and doeth it not, to him it is sin."  (James 4:17)  So there IS a law, and there is a "good way", and to trangress or break the law or fail to choose the "good way" = SIN.  Of course, an infant can do neither.  I'd ask specifically ... SPECIFICALLY ... exact what law a one-day-old infant has broken?  If someone implies that "crying" is an evidence of sin, just say "Jesus wept."

#2 is that even the Bible presents infants and the very young as innocent.

Psalm 106:37-38 ..... "They sacrificed their sons and their daughters to demons, and they shed innocent blood, the blood of their sons and their daughters."
"Your little ones, who you said would become prey, and your children, who as yet do not know good from bad --- they shall enter; to them I will give it, and they shall occupy it" (Deuteronomy 1:39)
If your friend is correct, the blood that was shed in Psalms 106 is "guilty" blood, but the Bible says their blood was "innocent"  Why?  "Children who as yet do not know good from bad."

#3  The name of the doctrine is total (complete, 100%) hereditary (passed down like color of one's eyes) depravity (wholly inclined to evil or sin).  Look at the "hereditary" part.
"The soul that sinneth, it shall die. The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father" (Eze 18:20)
Your friend is saying, "Oh, no, the son DOES inherit the sins of his father."

Here is a synopsis of HOW sin occurs:  "But each one is tempted when he is carried away and enticed by his own lust. Then when lust has conceived, it gives birth to sin; and when sin isaccomplished, it brings forth death.  Do not be deceived, my beloved brethren."  (James 1:14-16).  Now how can a 1-day-old infant be tempted? enticed of his own lust?

I hope I have provided enough verses for you to use - I could provide ten times more that all say the same thing.  Accountability for one's actions occur in YOUTH - not infancy.

The church of Christ emphatically denies that an infant is accountable or capable of sin.  We teach that they are safe, and, should parent be so unfortunate as to lose an infant or very young child, we can safely say with certainty that the child's spirit was immediately transported to Paradise.  Those who believe what your friend believes can offer no consolation at all - I don't know what your friend would say to the parents.

---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------

QUESTION: SCRIPTURES THAT MY NEIGHBOR USES IS ROMANS 5:12 , PSALMS 51:5, JOHN 5:25 FOR INFANTS ARE BORN SINNERS

ANSWER: Then we'll just see exactly what the verses say and exactly what they do NOT say.

ROMANS 5:12:  "Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned"  Allow me to rephrase:
"Wherefore, by one man (Adam) sin entered into the world, and (physical) death by sin; and so (physical) death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned."  

The phrase "for that all have sinned" must necessarily be the portion of the passage that your neighbor relies upon.  It must certainly refer to those who know right from wrong, and is used as an exaggeration to express the univerality of sin among accountable people.  As said before, if "all" have sinned, and sin is the trangression of the law, it would be most important that your neighbor point out exactly which law a one-day-old infant has transgressed.  This she cannot and will not do.

It has often been said that "that which proves too much proves too much proves nothing."  Take the Great Commission for example, "Go ye in all the world and preach the gospel to every creature..."  Every creature, according to her reasoning, must include infants - if so, why doesn't she go the nurseries and daycares that keep infants and toddlers and preach the gospel to them?  You know why!  They are innocent and safe, unable to discern right from wrong, and have no need of hearing the gospel - and she's "proved too much" so she's "proved nothing."  That's why I said, "Drive a peg down.  Sin is the transgression of the law. We know that for sure."  Ask what law a one-day-old infant might have transgressed.  Adultery?  Stealing?  Insist that some possibilities be provided, at least.

PSALMS 51:5:  "Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my mother conceive me."

Of course, this is David speaking, and I suppose your neighbor's key phrase is "in sin did my mother conceive me".  Perhaps there was some sin involved in David's conception.  If so, the passage falls far short of saying that David was born a sinner.  Is the lady a mother?  If so, she should very well understand the difference between conception and birth.  We do know that "the son shall not bear the inquity of the father", and if the son bears the inquity of the mother, then I'd like to know Jesus' condition at birth.  It is also possible that David was making a poetic reference to his own adulterous relationship in which a son was conceived.  The question to keep at the forefront is, "Are infants born sinners?"  Nothing in the verse mentions "birth" - it mentions conception

JOHN 5:25:  "Verily, verily, I say unto you, The hour is coming, and now is, when the dead shall hear the voice of the Son of God: and they that hear shall live."

You must mean another verse; I tried to figure out the one to which you might be referring.

If you ever desire a more complex, cross-referenced discussion, then please say so.  You might find it interesting, but I perceive nothing about her arguments that would warrant.  She is in the unenviable position of making the Bible contradict itself.  Good luck and best wishes.

Brent

---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------

QUESTION: I STATED TOWARDS MY NEIGHBOR EZEKIEL 26:13 STATING THE LORD PUTTING AN END TOWARDS INSTUMENTAL MUSIC , SHE STATED THE THE BOOK OF PSALMS IS FOR INSTRUCTION UPON HOW TO PRAISE THE LORD ; SHE ALSO STATED THESE SCRIPTURES -PSALMS 122 , PSALMS 148 , PSALMS 150 :// I ALSO STATED COLOSSIANS 3:15 [TEACHING AND ADMONISHING BY SINGING ://


RESPECTFULLY YOURS RESPECTFULLY ,

BRO. L. QUINTON BROUSSARD
[RESIDENCE]
[CELLULAR]

Answer
Well, I have never referred someone to a website or webpages, but in this case, I believe a combination of two webpages will answer any questions that may arise.  I believe they do so more completely than I would, so I merely submit them to you.  If you have further questions that are not answered therein, feel free to ask.

http://bereacoc.com/whychrisworship.htm

http://www.bible.ca/H-music.htm

Best wishes,

Brent