Expert: Marvin Howard - 7/12/2011

Question
Oh Hello again, this a reply from my friend:

The phrase "A Cappella" is not found within any context of the New Testament explicitly. Also, it isn't even found implicitly, and this is especially true in Ephesians 5:19 where the word "psalms" is used which based on many scholarly sources (see Thayer's revision to Grimm's Lexicon, or just Grimm's lexicon) that "psalms" means with the accompaniment of a stringed instrument/how it was used in Old Testament times (thus, exemplified by David a psalm can be accompanied or not accompanied by a stringed instrument and still be a psalm). My argument comes from a word you can actually find within the verse that I did not take out of context. Your argument relies on you first putting in "A Cappella" then basing your argument from there. A false premise will always conclude a false conclusion.

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Sure, I don't disagree that we should do what Hebrews 13:15-16 but you are quick to think this is referencing singing. I'm sorry that you can't see the argument I've made out of Ephesians 5:19. You are framing an argument... The verse says "let us offer the sacrifice of praise to God continually, that is, the fruit of our lips giving thanks to his name." IF this means sing (IF!) it still doesn't forbid instruments. If you can't disprove my point from Ephesians 5:19 then by your logic the scriptures contradict themselves.

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And he quoted when you said: "In other words, to use this word, a specific instrument must also be named. The only instrument authorized for us in worship is the human heart; we must pluck our heartstrings with our singing."

He quotes this way: "It is by definition of "psalms." - Any stringed instrument.

But someone may say, does not the American Standard Version's rendering, "singing and making melody with your heart to the Lord," necessarily mean that the heart is the instrumental means by which the melody is made? Not at all. Such an interpretation depends upon defining the word "with" as means. A look in any dictionary will reveal at least eight or ten definitions for the word "with." One of these is "accompanied by," and it seems clear that this is what is meant by the ASV in Eph. 5:19. Compare 1Cor. 14:15 where the construction is parallel in the original as well as in the English: "I will sing with the spirit..." Non-instrument advocates never contend that this verse refers to singing that is done "with the spirit" rather than the voice. All can see that it means, "I will sing with (accompanied by) the spirit..." If the singing in 1 Cor. 14:15 can be audible (which it obviously is) and still be with the spirit, then both the singing and the making melody in Eph. 5:19 can be literal and audible and still be with the heart! If not, why not? Thus, the meaning of the ASV is, "singing (vocal) and making melody (audible, vocal or instrumental) with (accompanied by) your heart to the Lord." This perfectly harmonizes with the versions already quoted.
http://www.wordsfitlyspoken.org..."

"Since ψαλλοντες is both plural (2nd person) and imperative, all are commanded to ψαλλοντες each time there is music. If ψαλλοντες applies to a piano, harp, or any other stringed, mechanical instrument, and it is already proven to apply to all worshipers, then all must play that specific instrument or be in violation of the imperative. "

I agree, we must all sing psalms, hymns, and spiritual songs. The definition of psalms though calls that when an instrument is used (within our liberty by definition and OT example of that definition) that it ACCOMPANIES, therefore not must everyone play to fulfill the definitions imperative to accompany. The imperative you use is linked back to "speaking" or the idea of singing the three types of songs we have in Ephesians 5:19, not the allowance of stringed instruments by the definition of psalms. The use of the instrument is optional based on the definition of psalms.
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Thayer's translation of a Greek-Latin lexicon prepared by Prof. C. L. Wilibald Grimm. would totally disagree with what you are saying. He says (b/c there is no evidence) that psalms means the same as it did in OT usage.

I hope you can help he's quite a stubborn person. I don't know about him but he's getting me lost with his passages. He emailed me this yesterday, and he is quite moved by your answers.

Answer
Hi!

This person was presented with arguments that cannot be argued. Therefore, he just thinks they do not exist. Everything I said must happen, must happen for the very reasons I said it must happen. Tell him that in spite of his mental gymnastics to change the Bile into a god after his own image, the Bible is stil there, and it still proves his position to be sinful. He actually said psalms do not have to be accompanied by an instrument, then he waffled and said all psalms, by definition, are done with instruments. He is contradicting himself. This is the best proof he is in abject error.

Also, ask him to address why the founders of his religion could not be trusted to know the same things i taught. He totally failed to address that, because it is a catch 22. Either they are right and his position is sinful, or they were mistaken, in which case anything they taught (especially things making them unique from other religions and denominations) is likely to be a mistake. If the founder of their religion started that new religion in error, then it should not even exist. Our religion was not founded by a man as was his: ours was founded by Christ.

Once you nail his position with the words of the inventors of his religion, if he will not repent, tell him you are shaking the dust of your feet at him as commanded, and you will not respond to him again unless and until he repents, which means being sorry and changing his teaching.

I really dislike that that is the best help, but Christ knew it would be best in some cases.

In His Service,
Marvin Howard