Expert: Marvin Howard - 3/31/2004

Question
Repent and believe is used in the N.T.;
But repent and baptized is NEVER used in the N.T.;

In Acts 2:38, Koine Greek makes it plain that:
1. Repent is 2person.plural.
2. Baptized is 3person.singular.

Can you address my issues in a scholarly fashion?

Answer
Hi!

C.D., I will do my best, based in the Greek. Please understand, this format does not allow the Greek characters in the words, so, I will use vocalizations of those words. Firstly, for a common frame of reference, I will list Acts 2:38 (KJV). Secondly, I will list the pronunciations of the Greek text. Thirdly, I will give the direct, word for word translation into English words (mine, followed by both Young's Literal and the Anylitical Literal versions). Lastly, I will speak to your grammar issues.

"Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost."

Pet'-ros / deh / fay-me / pros / ow-tos / met-an-o-eh'-o / kahee /
bap-tid'-zo / hek'-as-tos / hoo-mone' / ep-ee' / on'-om-ah /
ee-ay-sooce' / khris-tos' / ice / af'-es-is / ham-ar-tee'-ah / kahee / lam-ban'-o / do-reh-ah' / hag'-ee-os / pnyoo'-mah

Peter then declared with regard to the same, Repent and be immersed (proper translation of bap-tid'-zo/baptized, MRH) each of you upon the name of Jesus Christ in the direction of pardon from your errors in God's Law, and lay hold on a gift of the Holy Spirit.

"and Peter said unto them, 'Reform, and be baptized each of you on the name of Jesus Christ, to remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit," (YLT)

"Then Peter was saying to them, "Repent, and let each of you* be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ, to [the] forgiveness of sins, and you* will receive the free gift of the Holy Spirit." (ALT minus the translator's personal interpretations, MRH)

You are incorrect in stating that "repent" and "baptized" are never used together in the New Testament. They are together in your very reference. I even double checked each Bible available to me to see if it was an abberation peculiar to the KJV. It is not. Baptized (or a form or definition thereof) appears with repent (or a form or definition thereof) in each of the following versions/translations (in no particular order):

The Greek New Testament
American Standard Version (1901)
New American Standard Version
New International Version
God's Word
Indonesian Bahasa
Italian Riveduta Luzzi
International Standard Version
La Biblia de las Americas (Latin American Version)
Literal Translation of the Holy Bible
Modern King James Version
The Message
Norwegian Bible
Portugese Joao Ferreira Almeida Atualizada
Romanian Domitru Cornilescu Translation
Russian New Testament
Analytical Literal Translation
Afrikaans Ou Vertaling
Basic Bible In English
Swedish Bible (1917)
Contemporary English Version
Chinese Union Version - Traditional
Danish Bible
Dutch Staten Vertaling
English Majority Text Version
French Darby Version
Finnish Pyha Raamattu
Geneva Bible (1599)
German Eberfelder Bible
Good News Bible
Thai King James Version
Ukranian Bible by Ivan Ogienko
World English Bible
Young's Literal Translation (1898)

Here are the versions which omit all forms of either of these words:

__________________________

That's right! Out of 35 different translations and versions available to me (including the original Greek), neither word is completely ommited from any of them. Since they are always together here, I know you didn't read it, but rather are just accepting what was told you by someone else. I do not know who this might be. But, after missing this so grossly, I would be unable to trust him with anything else spiritual. He is deleting from God's Word. For what reason? Is it to fit a preconceived idea, doctrine, or position? Is it to promote laziness and therefore increased numbers of followers? It is purposeful in any case. He is in danger of Hell fire for so doing. He is anathema (accursed) to God for this (Galatians 1:8-9).

You are correct in your usage of 2nd and 3rd persons. There is a reason. Peter had repented already. He was past this step in the process of salvation. Therefore, Peter is not included in the repentance portion of the command, hence the 2nd person usage. The plural is used as both individuals, and the group as a whole needed to repent.

However, Peter had not yet been baptized in water at this point; only by the Spirit. He began speaking immediately upon being moved. Therefore, as revealed to be necessary, he still needed the water baptism, just as did Cornelius in Acts 10. Peter (the first person "I" in this case) is included in the portion of the command to "be baptized" (third person "we" in this case). Baptism is never a group responsibility. It is always individual action of submission, hence the singular usage. The very use of both the third person and the singular for this precludes this baptism's being Holy Spirit baptism.

I sincerely hope this helps you to see the entirity of God's Word rather than take the cafeteria style adopted by denominationalism; discarding the parts which are distasteful.

In His Service,
Marvin Howard
preacherman_1962@yahoo.com
http://www.geocities.com/preacherman_1962