Expert: Marvin Howard - 3/28/2006

Question
I noticed in your addressing "Predestination" in a previous question that you mentioned Esau and Jacob in Romans 9?  You started at verse 14 thus failed to deal with the context of the scripture.  It would have been wiser to start with verse 6.  What answer do you give to those who support God's sovereignty in all things and "predestination" when dealing with verses 11-13 of Romans 9?

Answer
Hi!

JG, having answered that question over 10 weeks ago, I had to refresh my memory.

Indeed, God does have sovereignity in all things. Indeed, He does have foreknowledge of what we will do. However, He does not force us to do these things. Neither does He prevent us. This is the premise behind the doctrine of predestination; that God will save people regardless of what they do or want, and that God will condemn people regardless of what they do or want. In the Bible, prophecy is used to prove that God is God. God did not make Pharaoh's heart hard. The Hebrew makes it clear that God only allowed Pharaoh to harden his own heart. God knowing this in advance did not cause it to happen.

I could have started even before verse 6, since the word "Neither" is a conjunction, indicating that verse 6 was not the start of the thought. I understand that verse 13, where I really started (not 14 as you wrote), begins with "As," which is also a conjunction. The person asking already understood that predestination (of people, not of nations nor of the savior) is a false doctrine. Therefore, I concluded that he/she already could tell this passage was speaking of the seed of Israel as the lineage of the Christ. I used the same principle in my answer that was used by Peter on Pentecost. People already believed. Peter did not have to tell them to believe, so he began with the command to repent in Acts 2:38. Properly understanding where a person stands (which I admit is not always possible, but it was in this case) allows me to be more concise with my answers; not overburdening the reader with redundant information. I have a most difficult time with this as it is. Any time I can safely reduce the volume of my content, without jeapordizing the intended message, I gladly take the opportunity.

In the passage you questioned (11-13), Paul is continuing to sorrow for those Israelites who were certain of their election because of their physical birth, contrary to what Jesus said in John 3:3-5. Paul was simply showing that even though the nation of Israel was ordained by God (c.f. Romans 13:1-7 where the thought and context continue still), yet they were temporary until the fullness of time when God would reconcile all (including Gentiles) those who are obedient to Himself (Romans 11).

This passage has nothing whatever to do with neither the salvation, nor the condemnation, of Esau. God just knew that the descendants of Jacob would remain more faithful, further ensuring the advent of the seed; the Messiah. Jesus came, and Gentiles were accepted in Acts 10 and 11, so it appears that God was correct, as always.

In His Service,
Marvin Howard
http://www.geocities.com/preacherman_1962