Comparative Religious Studies/Vedas

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Question
Why Inidain scriptures (vedas, gita, epics) have no historical proof and references?

is there any proof that mahabaharath,ramayana happened?

why Abrahamic religions have good documented history while indian scriptures dont? i had these doubts but nobody could answer.

Answer
Hi Shree,
The main reason probably is that most of the Vedic and post-Vedic texts were written on palm leaves and similar materials that do not age well. The Jewish Tanach (Bible) was written on animal hide scrolls. The two newer religions of Christianity and Islam arose after the advent of durable paper (papyrus etc).

Also, the Sanatana Dharma sages were not concerned with historicity. The four yugas cover millions of years and yet many Vedic scholars see no need to view these millennia literally. Because of this, Indians did not take much trouble to preserve evidence of their past.

During the period when the Muslims ruled India they were brutal and destroyed most of what evidence there was. Most of the mandirs and other holy sites were destroyed, most of India's vast treasures were looted.

Archeology reveals a lot about India's past dating all the way to Mohenjo-daro (circa 2600 BCE) however Indian religion(s), while steeped in tradition and heroic accounts, is a mainly oral tradition.  

Comparative Religious Studies

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Shlomo Phillips

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