Expert: Equality in Marriage Institute - 11/22/2005

Question
My wife of three years and I are planning to divorce.  The home we live in was purchased by me in the state of Florida and is in my name only, we were not married at the time I bought it nor were we living together at the time of purchase. She has a son who is now ten and he has a father who lives in the state of Flrida and provides support through the courts to his wife. I have never used or asked for any of those funds, I do how ever provide the boy with all the ammenities and love as if he were mine. Is she intitled to any percentage of my home in cash or other types of distribution. My home is also were my office is as I have a .Com business. Thanks

Answer
Dear J. Grace,

As you may know divorce laws vary from state to state (divorcesource.com) so it would be in your best interest to learn your state's laws. Some states do not include previously owned property in the marital property. In some cases, if the marriage has been long enough and improvements and payments on the house mortgage or taxes have been paid by the non-owner spouse, then this may effect how it is label- marital or personal property.

Visit the following sites:
http://www.floridadivorce.com/
http://www.stateofflorida.com/Portal/DesktopDefault.aspx?tabid=64

After you have learned more about divorce in Florida you may then want to interview a few lawyers to find one that will work well for you. I also encourage you to visit these other sites for more helpful info: equalityinmarriage.org, aaml.org, nolo.com

I hope this was of some help.