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Economics/Comparative advantage among Nations

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Question
This concept says that any country, be it highly efficient in producing all of its goods/services is always better off if it involves in International trade w.r.t those products in which it has a comparatively lesser advantage. But is it possible that a country could attain such productive efficiency in production of ALL its goods/services, that no international trade (import) could increase its production-possibility-frontier, ever? Is this idea possible even theoretically? And Is there a practical example even close to this hypothetical nation?

Answer
Thank you for your query. It is theoretically possible.  As an example, The Roman Empire. Any such country that could attain such production function and efficiency in every and all goods and services should also have availability of resources.  In reality, it is not possible.  Even for a household to be so self sufficient.  It will end up bartering with the neighbours and vice versa.
Good luck.

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