Question QUESTION: in the previous post you wrote about that existence of indo-europeans , majority of europeans except finnish, hungarian ,estonian & lappish. but in looks those uralic people are strikingly similar to many indo-european natives particularly in europe. what is actual anthropological origin of cacausian/white ?
ANSWER: Hello,
Please note that I know the Indo-Europeans from the point of view of the language they spoke, since it is just from their language that almost all the European groups of language have derived.
I am not however an anthropologist and then I cannot help you with anthropological origin of caucasian/white peoples.
What I can tell you is that the term Caucasian is synonym of Indo-European, as it is used by anthropologists to refer to the race of human beings that inhabits Europe, Iran, parts of Central Asia, and the north of the Indian Sub-Continent.
This use of the word derives from the theory that all of these populations ultimately originate in the Caucasus region in the east of Europe between the Black Sea and the Aral Sea.
Moreover I have to point out that the adjective 'Caucasian' is still used in North American-English to refer to ethnic Europeans, though the largest groups considered to be Caucasians, i.e. the inhabitants of South Asia and Iran, would not be considered as such under this definition.
To conclude, you should look for an expert in anthropology who will help you with anthropological origin of Caucasian/white peoples.
Good luck!
Maria
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QUESTION: and u mean to say in the lines of english linguist william jones. he told the marked similarity among sanskrit , persian, latin and greek. what do you think the reason of striking similarity is because of migration of people or just forced learning by the natives? and the starting point from where the tribes started spreading - many say it is anatolia , persia or southern russia . which is exact ? germans claim they are aryans. is it true ? even many germans come to kashmir for they are racial coservatives.
Answer Hello,
The English linguist and philologist William Jones (1746-1794), starting from a comparison between structural features and basic vocabulary of Sanskrit, Persian, Greek, Latin, etc., suggested a common root / source for the so-called Indo-European languages, i.e. the language spoken by the nomadic tribes of the Indo-Europeans, also known as Aryans [From Sanskrit ‘āryan’meaning noble], who originally lived in central Asia near the Aral Lake from which around 2500-2000 BC migrated to India, Iran and finally Europe throughout Mesopotamia and Asia Minor.
So these nomadic tribes moved away from each other, losing contact, and then their language broke up into a number of tongues that later also split up still further, giving rise to the the following modern Indo-European languages, i.e.:
-ROMANCE GROUP [Latin and then Italian, French, Spanish, Portuguese, Romanian]
-GERMANIC GROUP [German, English, Danish, Icelandic, Norwegian, Swedish]
-GREEK GROUP [Greek]
-SLAVIC GROUP [Russian, Polish, Bulgarian, Serbo-Croatian, Slovenian, Czech],
-ILLYRIAN GROUP [Albanian].
As for the Germans, they are Aryans / Indo-Europeans like the other peoples of Europe (from Italians to French, British, Polish, Danes, etc.), India and Iran simply because they descend just from the nomadic tribes named Aryans.
I must however point out that the name “Aryan” originally had absolutely nothing to do with the Nazi ideology where Aryan indicated “ a non-Jewish Caucasian, especially one of Nordic type, supposed to be part of a master race”.
