European Politics/SNP landslide
QUESTION: How does the SNP landslide in the UK parliamentary election square with the defeat of the recent referendum for Scottish independence? The two actions would seem to be inconsistent.
ANSWER: With all 59 seats in Scotland declared, the vote shares were as follows: SNP 50%, Lab 24%, Con 15%, Lib Dem 8%, UKIP 2%, Green 2%. The result of the referendum was YES 45%, NO 55%. In the referendum (according to the exit poll) the YES vote was made up of 95% SNP voters and 5% UK parties and the NO vote was made up of 95% UK parties and 5% SNP voters. This means that in a first past the post election (which Westminster was) the NO vote was split amongst multiple parties whereas the YES vote went to just one party.
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QUESTION: Thanks, but I think you misunderstood my question. My question was based on the fact that in the UK's parliamentary election 56 of Scotland's 59 seats went to the Scottish National Party (whose primary purpose is to promote Scottish independence) while in the recent Scottish referendum independence failed. I was simply asking what might explain this inconsistency.
I have been thinking long and hard about this and I will have to admit failure, i.e I don't know how you explain a 55% rejection of independence and yet a 50% vote share for a party that endorses independence. The only possible suggestion is that put forward by the leader of the Respect Party (George Galloway) when he said "Labour made themselves toxic in Scotland by aligning with the Conservatives during the referendum. Scotland rejects Conservatism and Labour made themselves Conservative"