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About George Tzathas
Expertise
I will be quite happy to offer help in translating English words to Greek and vice versa. Also pronunciation of Greek words, and modern Greek history.

Experience
I am a native Greek speaker born and bred in Athens. I have been living in an english speaking country for over thirty years, where I studied accounting. Also I have obtained a certificate in Liaison interpreting from The Auckland University of Technology. I have been translating for the Consul of the Hellenic Republic in Auckland for a number of years.

Organizations
-Member of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of New Zealand -Also I am a member of proz.com translating website http://www.proz.com/pro/

Education/Credentials
-Greek High school in Athens Greece -Lower certificate In english from the Greek American Cultural Institute in Greece -Certificate in Liaison interpreting from the Auckland University of Technology -Member of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of New Zealand

 
   

You are here:  Experts > Homework Help > Latin Language > Greek > Koine Greek

Greek - Koine Greek


Expert: George Tzathas - 11/5/2009

Question
QUESTION: May this:
ὥσπερ γὰρ διὰ τῆς παρακοῆς τοῦ ἑνὸς ἀνθρώπου ἁμαρτωλοὶ κατεστάθησαν οἱ πολλοί, οὕτω καὶ διὰ τῆς ὑπακοῆς τοῦ ἑνὸς δίκαιοι κατασταθήσονται οἱ πολλοί.

Be interpreted as:
"So by way of the same manner as one man's disobedience the many were made sinners, this way also through the obedience of the one, so shall the many be made righteous."

ANSWER: Hi Darin
This is from Romans 5:19

The translation given by scholars is as follows

1. KING JAMES VERSION
"For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous."

2. NEW INTERNATIONAL VERSION
"For just as through the disobedience of the one man the many were made sinners, so also through the obedience of the one man the many will be made righteous."

The above are correct translations of this verse.  
Compare yours with these to see where the differences are. I consider the above verses excellent translations of the original Greek.

Kind regards
George

---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------

QUESTION: I could have looked that up my self, I'm asking if it could be interpreted as what I asked because I look at Strong's Concorance with the words: "For AS BY one man's disobedience"
"as" is "ὥσπερ" = hōsper - hoce'-per, with the root of "ὡς" = hōs - hoce, which means "in that manner".

AND
"by" is "δια" = dia - dee-ah', which denotes the channel of an act thus "by way of".

Therefore, I figured It may be interpreted as "So by way of the same manner as one man's disobedience..."

May I be correct?


Answer
Hi Darin


Strong's Greek dictionary               
ὥσπερ (hṓsper)               
- Definition: just as, i.e. exactly like               
+ KJV usage::--(even, like) as.               
              
              
The Greek word "διά" is translated correctly as "through" in English"               
              
ὥσπερ (hṓsper) = just as               
γάρ = for               
διά (pronounced "theea" = through               
της = The               
παρακοης = disobedience               
Του = of the               
ενός = one               
ανθρώπου = man               
              
Coming back to your question the "by" refers to "the disobedience"  the rest (by way of same manner ) is unnecessary and redundant.                 
The word "through" is more to the point and gives a better understanding to a reader. This is how I would have translated, being a native Greek speaker.               
              
You may interpret it the way you mention, it gives roughly a similar understanding but I believe it is not as close to a clear understanding of the original.                 
              
The expression you use "by way of the same manner"  may be simply and concisely replaced by "Just as" which is clearer and exactly as the original Greek is.                 
Kind regards
George

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