Greek/Matt 5:18 use of the greek word
QUESTION: Hi, I was wondering if you could help. I came across the word παρελθη in Matthew 5:18. I am however finding it strange that παρελθη shows up as parerchomai * par-er'-khom-ahee * From G3844 and G2064. Now I understand the G3844 part as 'para' but the connection of G2064 ἔρχομαι * erchomai seems strange. I don't understand how they get ἔρχομαι from παρ-ελθη....is there any chance it's been done wrong. Is there any other an ie t sources of this word outside the bible? Thanks
Pastor Matthew Klein
ANSWER: Hi Matthew,
it is all about grammar rules and there is nothing wrong here. It is actually παρέλθη that derives from παρέρχομαι, not the other way round. If you know the tenses of ἔρχομαι, as well as all irregular verbs' tenses, you will then notice how the conjunctive forms are made. Let's take this verb (ἔρχομαι) as example:
Present - ἔρχ-ομαι
Aorist II - ἦλθ-ον
We know that verbs that start with a vowel change it from short to long in the past tenses, i.e. imperfect, aorist, pluperfect. Except for the indicative mood, all other moods (conj., opt., imp.) and verbal forms (infinitive and participle) use the vowel of the present tense.
So, if ἦλθον is the aorist form, then in the other moods you have to switch back to ε- (of the present tense) and forget about η-. Instead of *ἤλθω you will actually get ἔλθω in the conjunctive; and with the prefix παρά it becomes παρέλθω. The optative would be (παρ)ἔλθοιμι and imperative ἐλθέ/πάρελθε and so on.
Let me know if you need further assistance on the topic. Have a good day.
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QUESTION: Thank you souvj for getting back to us. The follow up question is that this same word seems to mean multiple things such as 'pass away' , 'pass by' or 'come together'. We feel that in the context of Matthew 5 being requoted in part in Revelation 21 seems to suggest that the verb arichomi be translated 'when have and earth come together ...not one iota of the law will pass away'. This idea seems to be confirmed in both the Lord's Prayer in the gospels 'thy Kingdom come on earth..." And again in Rev 21 as the Kingdom is seem coming to the earth adored like a bride (which is the church) renewing the old earth into a new one.
We are trying to combat the traditional idea that this verse is suggesting the destruction of the heavens and earth by Hod out of wrath. We believe He is actually reconciling man to Himself and re-establishing Eden on the earth by breaking the curses laid out in Genesis and Dueteronomy.
The word is used also in another passage speaking of new believers that 'the old has 'passed away' and behold all things are made new' this clearly doesn't mean the old is destroyed but actually transformed.
Your thoughts?? We just want to know if this translation is possible.
ANSWER: The translation "come to an end" is also possible. The actual meaning is that "something goes away or its time ends" but not really in the sense of human death or a destruction. I cannot tell for the interpretation of the verse concerning the destruction of heavens by wrath or whatever; better consult a thelogist, as I answer mostly language related topics and not rendition.
Wishing you good luck with your research.
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QUESTION: Thank you again. Ya the problem is that the Theologists often project their own interpretation into the translation so we are trying to find an unbiased opinion on the translation possibility of the word being 'come together' for that greek word
I think that the translation "come together" isn't a good one for this verb. I checked all possible interpretations, but it doesn't go that far. The most common meaning is that of "pass by" as of time, or to "pass away" as of leave or come to an end and the alike. Well, I am not surprised that theologists interpret everything at their convenience, because it's not the only mistranslation of a word..
Anyway, hope that I helped you somehow. Have a good day.