Greek/Need to know whether this translation is possibly valid
Can you tell me whether it could be grammatically reasonable to translate the original Greek of 1 John 4:2 as suggested below?
Greek [according to http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/1jo4.pdf
"pan pneuma ho homologei iEsoun christon en sarki elEluthota ek tou theou estin"
Literal translation [same source]:
"EVERY spirit WHICH IS-avowING JESUS ANOINTED[Christ] IN FLESH HAVING-COME OUT OF-THE God IS"
Suggested translation [which I need to know the reasonableness of]:
"every spirit that confesses Jesus Christ when he has come into the flesh is of God"
[where "he" refers to the spirit having come in/into the flesh, not to Jesus having come in flesh]
Thanks very much!
thank you for your inquiry. I cannot find this in John at all; not sure what the source is. Other than that, your translation is fine. Since there is no -ing form in Greek, you could also have translated the verb "avow" in the relative clause as "which avows", too. I would slightly change the participle, due to it being predicative (because of the verb "homologei"). The pronoun "He" referes clearly to Jesus Christ, not the the spirit. You can deduct this from the gender of "eleluthota", which is masculine (not neutral, cf. o Iesous-to pneuma). For the translation of the predicative participle I'd prefer "confesses/declares to have come into flesh".
Let me know if this is clear or whether you need further assistance. Have a good day.