Hebrew Language/Deut. 12:15. 12:22. and 15:22
Hello, my question is:
Is it possible from a Hebrew grammar perspective for Deut. 12:15 12:22 and 15:22 to be translated as "the clean and the unclean (flesh) may be eaten", rather than the way I normally see it as: "the clean and the unclean (People) may eat it (the flesh)”?
A group of us are having a discussion about how the grammar is parsed. Logically, it does not seem that YHWH would contradict himself, but my question only involves the way the grammar should/could be translated and none of us are Hebrew experts.
רַק בְּכָל-אַוַּת נַפְשְׁךָ תִּזְבַּח וְאָכַלְתָּ בָשָׂר, כְּבִרְכַּת יְהוָה אֱלֹהֶיךָ אֲשֶׁר נָתַן-לְךָ--בְּכָל-שְׁעָרֶיךָ; הַטָּמֵא וְהַטָּהוֹר יֹאכְלֶנּוּ, כַּצְּבִי וְכָאַיָּל.
אַךְ, כַּאֲשֶׁר יֵאָכֵל אֶת-הַצְּבִי וְאֶת-הָאַיָּל--כֵּן, תֹּאכְלֶנּוּ: הַטָּמֵא, וְהַטָּהוֹר, יַחְדָּו, יֹאכְלֶנּוּ.
בִּשְׁעָרֶיךָ, תֹּאכְלֶנּוּ--הַטָּמֵא וְהַטָּהוֹר יַחְדָּו, כַּצְּבִי וְכָאַיָּל
From a Hebrew grammar perspective יֹאכְלֶנּוּ means "[he] will eat it", so it does mean "the clean and the unclean (People) will eat it".
תֹּאכְלֶנּוּ means "[you] will eat it" so Deut. 15:22 can be understood both ways, but because of the previous quotes, and because Leviticus:7-19 says that all who is clean may eat flesh, it is generally assumed that it also refers to people and not to flesh.