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Hebrew Language/Was vs. Became controversy

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Question
In Gen. 1:2 is the word "was" and in Ex. 9:24 is the word "became" but they are identicle in Hebrew. Can Gen. 1:2 "was" better be interpreted as "became" as the Septuagint suggests? And why is this form of the verb "to exist" written this way in these two passages but different in Gen 1:4 and Gen 2:7?
thanks,
endlessly curious.

Answer
Ron,

Early Biblical Hebrew grammar was structured somewhat differently from late grammar, and it is speculated that Gen 2 was written by a different source than Gen 1, and utilized a somewhat different grammar. To anglicize an example, the future tense of the English 'Be' is 'yehi'. By adding the article 'va' to yehi, the tense changes to past, and vayehi becomes 'was'. Haya and Hayta are the more modern forms of vayehi. Now, Hebrew - Biblical and modern - does not have a Present Perfect tense.You can't say "I have become"; instead, you say "I became", and that explains the different ways 'was' and 'became' are used.

Best,


Gaddy  

Hebrew Language

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