Islam/Questions about Arab version of Abraham
Question-"Why do you think Mohammed lied in quran by taking/copying an account of the,"Hebrew Abraham", and manipulating that account with his(Mohammed) own false account as if to take away the credited account of the Jews who already had their(Israelites) account written more than 1000 yrs. before Mohammed was even born?
In quran 2:127, "And [mention] when Abraham was raising the foundations of the House and [with him] Ishmael, [saying], "Our Lord, accept [this] from us. Indeed You are the Hearing, the Knowing.
Now this is obviously not referring to the same, "Hebrew Abraham", as mentioned in Tanakh or even in the Christian Holy Word. All educated Jew and Christian professors know this, even children/teenage. Even educated people in certain other countries know this.
Because, "Hebrew Abraham", mentioned in Torah/Tanakh and Holy Word took the route which was from Haran to the land of Canaan(see Genesis 12) and there built an alter to God in the land promised to him and his offspring.
Kaaba was simply a pagan temple used to worship Saturn. In fact, the Kaaba in Mecca is only one of many. There were approximately 20 Kaaba-style temples in surrounding Arab lands including: Al- Lat House, Najran Kaaba, the Shaddad Kaaba, Ghatfan Kaaba and the Du-Khesla House(The Kaaba in Yemen).
Before Mohamed's time a poet named Zohair Ibn Abi Salma mentions that the ones who built the Kaaba came from the Quraish tribe. His poem reads: "I swear by the house, which the people turn around, who also built it, the Quraish and the Georhem." (The Georhem was a tribe that lived around Mecca at the same time as the Quraish.
There's no external writings to support the claim of the quran in this fatal error.
There's no external archaeological findings to support the claim of this book's assumption.
So since it's not the Hebrew Abraham, then what Arab was also named Abraham that this quran book is referring to?
Why do you think Mohammed purposely manipulated the Holy Word of the LORD to discredit the Jews and Christians throughout that quran book?
Was Arab Mohammed that jealous of Jews and Christians who lives better than Arabs that he had to copy writings from both Jew and Christian and manipulate them with his own version of what happened in order to discredit the Jews and Christians as is to make his own belief the one true account?
I understand why so many people don't convert to this islam belief because there's no external proof to support anything in the quran book before Mohammed was even born.
There is no pre-islam because there was no islam before Mohammed.
Just like I understand why so many people who converted to islam, leave islam and convert back to Christianity.
There's no taking a book seriously if the it is solely
self -centered with no other external support to verify what it claims to be true.
So then, can you intelligently answer these questions?
ASSALAAMU ALAIKUM W.B
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