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QUESTION: if a nikah deed has been done between a couple along with some mehar and divorce takes place before the marriage and even the couple does not know each other. is the girl entitled for any mehar in such a situation according to four sunni imams?

ANSWER: As Salaam Alaikum!

As Muslims we have been commanded in the Koran to wish with 'Salaam' whenever we come across or
write to each other.

Where is the question of divorce here when only a deed is prepared but Nikah not yet performed.

In case Nikah deed is signed by both, then only the divorce issue arises.

May the Almighty Allah have mercy on us to forgive our sins and guide us all to the true path
of Islam as per the Koran for rest of our life.

---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------

QUESTION: Asalamualiakum, I mean to ask that nikah has been performed because nikah deed  is signed by all the concerned commonly at the time of nikah ceremony. Therefore the couple becomes wife and husband although the consummation/actual marriage does not take place and before that the divorce takes place.

Answer
Wallaikum As Salaam!

Each time your question is different and it is not possible to answer given the ambiguity in your question.

What do you mean actual marriage not happened and how can the nikanamma gets signed by all
without performing Nikah and taking consent of the bride and bride groom.

If you mean nuptials did not take place and got divorced, then the wife is entitled to her
dowry and alimony from the husband as her life is ruined in the society we live in that looks
down upon a divorcee.

And the wife need observe the Iddah period since she was divorced before consummation of the
marriage.


May the Almighty Allah have mercy on us to forgive our sins and guide us all to the true path
of Islam as per the Koran for rest of our life.

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Azam Mohammaed

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I try to clarify doubts logically with Koran's guidance

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Mashallah 18 years since I got married to my wife who is a Protestant Christian by faith

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