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Islam/Re: Who Revealed the Quran?


QUESTION: Salaam Mr. Azam Mohammaed,

My name is Bilal and I follow the Qur'an alone (I do not follow ahadith). I have been studying the Qur'an for quite some time and I came across a very interesting post by a brother in a forum on the website "" I was wondering if you could shed some insight upon this:



I am wondering how this can be solved. I never found any names in AlQuraan ending with this tanween  either two of them, as in Muhammed i.e., (the tanween was in the original post but appeared as an image, so it did not copy over to the text).

Other prophet's names used in AlQuraan are as:


Why not any name ends with tanween? Is Muhammed not a name? If it is a name then how about 6:114 and 6:139?

6:114 اَفَغَیۡرَ اللّٰہِ اَبۡتَغِیۡ حَکَمًا وَّ ہُوَ الَّذِیۡۤ اَنۡزَلَ اِلَیۡکُمُ الۡکِتٰبَ مُفَصَّلًا ؕ وَ الَّذِیۡنَ اٰتَیۡنٰہُمُ الۡکِتٰبَ یَعۡلَمُوۡنَ اَنَّہٗ مُنَزَّلٌ مِّنۡ رَّبِّکَ بِالۡحَقِّ فَلَا تَکُوۡنَنَّ مِنَ الۡمُمۡتَرِیۡنَ
6:114 Then is it other than Allah I should seek as judge while it is He who has revealed to you the Book explained in detail?" And those to whom We gave the Scripture know that it is sent down from your Lord in truth, so never be among the doubters.

مُنَزَّلٌ is set on same weight as مُحَمَّدٌ so why don't they used it as a name? Please click here to see other translations of this aayat.

6:139 وَ قَالُوۡا مَا فِیۡ بُطُوۡنِ ہٰذِہِ الۡاَنۡعَامِ خَالِصَۃٌ لِّذُکُوۡرِنَا وَ مُحَرَّمٌ عَلٰۤی اَزۡوَاجِنَا ۚ وَ اِنۡ یَّکُنۡ مَّیۡتَۃً فَہُمۡ فِیۡہِ شُرَکَآءُ ؕ سَیَجۡزِیۡہِمۡ وَصۡفَہُمۡ ؕ اِنَّہٗ حَکِیۡمٌ عَلِیۡمٌ
6:139 And they say, "What is in the bellies of these animals is exclusively for our males and forbidden to our females. But if it is  dead, then all of them have shares therein." He will punish them for their description. Indeed, He is Wise and Knowing.

مُحَرَّمٌ is also set on same weight as مُحَمَّدٌ, so why did they translate it and why not use as a name? Please click here to see other translations.

If we also translate the word مُحَمَّدٌ, which is derived from the word حَمۡدُ, means praise and مُحَمَّدٌ means praised one.

48:29 مُحَمَّدٌ رَّسُوۡلُ اللّٰہِ...
48:29 Muhammad is the Messenger of Allah... [regular translation]

If we translate the word مُحَمَّدٌ, 48:29 will be translated as "Praised one is the Messenger of Allah....", this means whoever is the Messenger of Allah is the praised one.

Fortunately or unfortunately I don't have any evidence, not a single aayat that says that AlQuraan was given to Muhammad. Why there is no such aayat if it was given to him?

All explanations, comments, suggestions, critics, advises, support are welcome.

ANSWER: Wallaikum As Salaam!

What is your dichotomy?

If the Koran is not revealed to our beloved prohet Muhammad, then whom do you think it was
revealed then.

Even before Koran was revealed people in Arabia called him Muhammad, meaning 'praised one'
due to his conduct, principles, values and character. He was also known as Ahmed.

For your information, in Vedas too it was prophesied that our beloved prophet would be born in
the land of Arabia and the name was once again mentioned as 'praised one' in Sanskrit and the
Bible too(prophesied in Deuteronomy 18:15-19 and John 14:16-17 & 16:13).

Please read below Koranic verses that has connection to our beloved prophet's conduct/actions
during the revelation of the Koran that clearly proves that the Koran was indeed revealed to
our beloved Prophet.

Am sure Inshallah you will not have any dichotomy on this issue after you read the below verses


By the way which is your country of origin?

May the Almighty Allah have mercy on us to forgive our sins and guide us all to the true path
of Islam as per the Koran for rest of our life.

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QUESTION: Walaykum assalam,

Thank you very much for your kind and timely reply. The issue became very interesting because, all proper names in the Quran end with a specific tanween except for Muhammad. And as you said, "Muhammad" translates to "praised one/praiseworthy." It seems, based on the Arabic grammar, that "Muhammad" is not a proper name, but rather, it is a title.

So, the prophet of the Quran was Muhammad by title, but what about name? That is the idea behind this individual's post in those forums. The prophecy about the coming of the Prophet is repeated in the Quran, but the name is not "Muhammad," it is "Ahmed."

Why do scholars teach us that Ahmed = Muhammad? Why is the word "Muhammad" in the Quran not treated as a proper name?

Also, I was born in Islamabad, Pakistan. Thank you very much Brother Azam.

As Salaam Alaikum!

Well, am not a scholar myself to address your queries but it never occurred me or entertained
any doubt that Koran was not revealed to our beloved prophet.

There are certain verses which are directly connected to his personal life too and also there
is a verse or two where he was admonished too.

For that matter, many Asian people name themselves Rahim, Rehman, Azeem etc. which in the Arab
world they do not name these after anyone since they believe the meaning of these name refers
as the Almighty Allah.

Let's not try to find ambiguity in the Koran for the the Almighty Allah has clearly said in
some verses that the Koran given to us is easy to read and understand but only one should have
true belief/faith that will make you realize that how Koran is so simple to understand that
surprises all of us to that some ignorant Muslims follow man made innovations attributing to
Islamic way that tantamounts to shirk.

Allah has give guidance in the Koran to lead to the true righteous life of Islam which is very
simple and easy unlike the complicated Islam projected by some ignorant Muslims in the World.

May the Almighty Allah have mercy on us to forgive our sins and guide us all to the true path
of Islam as per the Koran for rest of our life.


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Azam Mohammaed


I try to clarify doubts logically with Koran's guidance


Mashallah 18 years since I got married to my wife who is a Protestant Christian by faith

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