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About Brenda Martin
Expertise
I have been one of Jehovah`s Witneses now for over 30 years, in those years I have brought up 4 children, teaching each of them the bible.Being one of Jehovah`s Witnesses has helped me cope with my Epilepsy and bring up a daughter with learning difficulties.I have conducted bible studies with people from nearly every denomination i.e. Muslim. Having used the bible all these years to answer peoples questions, I feel I am qualified to give any answer regarding Jehovah`s Witnesses and the bible.
Experience
My experience has been one of attending bible lectures 5 times a week,taking part in these lectures in front of an audience and being with thousands of J.W. at conventions where I have seen the bible at work in peoples lives.It is truly a miracle when you see thousands of people meeting together and not one policeman needed, and not even a piece of litter in sight.It is like another world.
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You are here: Experts > Religion/Spirituality > Christianity - Restorationism > Jehovah`s Witness > john 1:1 and John 1:6
Expert: Brenda Martin - 11/4/2009
Question
Hi Brenda,
I have a question about John 1:1 and the "a".
I saw your previous answer and my question is then why isn't John 1:6 translated as, “there arose a man that was sent forth as a representative of a God.” Don't the same rules apply to all?
Also I saw the last post about Rev 1:8 not being Jesus speaking, but why in the previous verse is Jesus clearly being spoken of and then Jehovah talks? To me it seems clear that it is Jesus, and if that is the case, then he clams to be the Almighty?
Blessings,
Jamie
Answer
HI Jamie, you asked about--"JOHN 1:1 AND THE “A” ..JOHN 1:6 DON'T THE SAME RULES APPLY TO ALL?"
Yes the same rules do apply :¬) here is why John 1; 1 is rendered “a God” The definite article (THE) appears before the first occurrence of the•os′ (God) but not before the second. The articular (when the article appears) construction of the noun points to an identity, a personality, whereas a singular anarthrous (without the article) predicate noun before the verb (as the sentence is constructed in Greek) points to a quality about someone. So the text is not saying that the Word (Jesus) was the same as the God with whom he was but, rather, that the Word was godlike, divine, a god.
So in John 1; 6 the definite article “THE” appears before "God", making it THEE one & only almighty God being spoken of here, a personality, not a quality. If John 1; 6 didn’t have “THE” before the word “God” then it too would read, “a god”
REV 1:8 NOT BEING JESUS SPEAKING, BUT WHY IN THE PREVIOUS VERSE IS JESUS CLEARLY BEING SPOKEN OF AND THEN JEHOVAH TALKS?
Revelation 1:8 states: “The Lord God says, ‘I am the Alpha and the Omega, the One who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty!’” (The New American Bible) Clearly, the reference here is to the Most High God Jehovah.While Jesus Christ is referred to in the previous verse as “coming with the clouds,” the words of Revelation 1:8 and the surrounding verses show that he could not be “the Alpha and the Omega.” In the Scriptures, only the Father of the Lord Jesus Christ is spoken of as “the Lord God” and as the “Almighty.” Jesus Christ even refers to his Father as “my God.” (John 20:17; Rev. 3:12) According to Revelation 1:1, the revelation was given to Jesus Christ by God. Hence, we should expect the words of the Almighty God to be quoted in the account.
All the best
Brenda
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