QUESTION: Are you a baptized Jehovah's Witness and a member of the Watchtoer Bible & Tract Society? If so, I would like you to answer who is YHWH? Is YHWH Jehovah God the Almighty? According to Psalms 83:18, the name Jehovah can and is associated with God the Father only and neither Jesus nor an angel can be called Jehovah. Is that correct?
Thank you for your response.
ANSWER: So sorry. I didn't get a reminder in my email on this question. Yes, I have been baptized since 1976. YHWH is the Hebrew Tetragrammaton for Jehovah, Almighty God. You are correct that YHWH is only used for Almighty God, not for Jesus or an angel.
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QUESTION: Thank you for your response . One other question if you would please. Is it correct that the WT teaches that Jesus is Michael? And, can Michael receive the same type of religious worship as the worship that is to be given to God/Jehovah alone? Thank you again.
Yes, we know from examining the scriptures that Jesus is Michael the Archangel. The prefix “arch,” meaning “chief” or “principal,” implies that there is only one archangel, the chief angel; in the Scriptures, “archangel” is never found in the plural. 1st Thessalonians 4:16, in speaking of the preeminence of the archangel and the authority of his office, does so in reference to the resurrected Lord Jesus Christ: “The Lord himself will descend from heaven with a commanding call, with an archangel’s voice and with God’s trumpet, and those who are dead in union with Christ will rise first.” It is, therefore, the only name directly associated with the word “archangel” is Michael.—Jude 9
He (Jessu) is never to receive our worship. Our worship is to be only to Jehovah. Jesus himself emphatically stated to Satan that “it is Jehovah your God you must worship and it is to him alone you must render sacred service.” (Mt 4:8-10; Lu 4:7, 8)
If you would like me to go into this in more depth please feel free at any time! Thank you so much for allowing me to answer your questions.
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QUESTION: Just maybe one or two more questions if you don't mind. If Jesus is Michael and Michael is Jesus, since there are examples of angels refusing to accept worship, how can Jehovah in Hebrews 1:6b ccmmand all of His angels to worshi Jesus who you say is an angel? To worship a man (which men refused) or to worship an angel (which angels refused) would be idolatry. How can Jehovah command His angels to worship an angel?
Lastly, if Jesus went back to being Michael after His resurection, why do we not pray using Michael's name and why does Jehovah's word say ...the very last verse in Revelation..."come Lord Jesus"? Why does it not say "come Lord Michael"?
I appreciate you bearing with me regarding the questions. Thank you again. JM
Let me start by apologizing to you. I received this follow up question then got the flu and was not checking my emails, allexperts did not notify me that I had not answered you so I thought this had been addressed. I am so sorry, I certainly was not putting you off. Those are good questions. The act that they are performing to Jesus Christ is an act of obeisance.
1) Christ Jesus has been exalted by Jehovah to a position second only to Him, so that "in the name of Jesus every knee should bend of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the ground, and every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father." Hebrews 1:6 also shows that even the angels render obeisance to the resurrected Jesus Christ. Many translations render the Greek word proskyneoas as "worship", while some render it by expressions as "bow before" and "pay homage". No matter what English term is used, the original Greek remains the same and the understanding of what it is that the angels render to Christ must be in accord with the rest of the Scriptures. Jesus himself, as stated in you last Q&A, emphatically stated to Satan that "it is Jehovah you God you must worship (form of proskyneo, and is is to him alone you must render sacred service". Similarly, the angels to John to "worship God" (RE 19:10; 22:9) and this came after Jesus' resurrection and exaltation, showing that matters had not changed in the regard.
2)Why do we not use Michael instead of Jesus since he is in fact the Archangel Michael?
Jesus is referred to as other names also...The Word, Abaddon (angel of the abyss; Re 9:11) and Apollyon as the Executioner (Re 19:11) along with the knowledge that he was Michael the Archangel in pre-human existence and when he returned to his heavenly position. In Re 12 he is depicted as Michael cleansing the heavens but in RE 19 it depicts Christ as leading the heavely armies in war against the nations of the earth. By retaining the name Jesus after his resurrection (Acts 9:5), it shows that he is identical with the Son of God on earth.His resuming his heavenly name Michael and his title "The Word of God" ties him in with his prehuman existence.
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