Jehovah`s Witness/Passover or Easter, which?


Is this acceptable to God and Jesus?
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Hello Brother Rando,

I wish you good tidings and I hope that all is well with you and your family.

Brother Rando, now that Christendom had just finished their Passover or I should say Easter Celebration, I would like to submit to you a study that I did on the validity of the word Easter. That is, if the word Easter should be in the Bible? Specifically the one or the ONLY one that is mentioned in the book of Acts at Acts 12:4.

That is, as rendered in the KJV Bible as follows:

"And when he had apprehended him, he put [him] in prison, and delivered [him] to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people."

Now if you ask me, my answer will be definitely NOT! But anyone from the "KJV Onlyites" movement, of course they will surely say "why not, it should be there", alluding of the fact as to their claim that ONLY the KJB got it right.

In fact, most, if not all will probably repeat the same arguments that Mr. D Holland had repeatedly used in defense of "Easter", namely that:

>>>" is perfectly logical why he would want to bring Peter forth and execute him during his OWN celebration!..." because Herod was "in fact were celebrating his own Pagan Day, Easter". <<<

And probably will add with derision, the following:


<b>1.  That Tyndale, the guy who invented the word "Passover", forgot about his own word in his own translation of the Bible, where he rendered Acts 12:4 as Easter.

2.  That the King James translators also ALL got a sudden case of amnesia, and forgot how they had been translating the word "pascha" up to that point.  

Yes, that's correct....all 47 of them, at the same time.  You see, the King James Bible wasn't just the work of one translator, or even 5, as in the case of the NWT.  It was the work of 47 translators, divided up into several committees, who would all review the work of the other committees.  So, I guess you want to claim that all of these guys just forgot how they had been rendering "pascha" in previous verses, and sat around trying to figure out "Now, what does that word mean again?", and someone said..."I know, let's just call it Easter".

If you believe that, Dude, I've got some ocean-front property in Tennessee to see you for a great deal.

Actually, I think it is more reasonable to say that there were REASONS they chose the rendering "Easter" in this verse, and it was for reasons that were simply over the heads of the "translators" of the NWT." <<<

Yes, without any hesitation, they will proclaim that the translation of the Hebrew word, pe′sach or the Greek word pa′skha or the English word Passover into Easter in Acts 12:4 is correct "because Herod was "in fact were celebrating his own Pagan Day, Easter".

So there we have it. With this outright admission, we now have a clear understanding as to why the KJV Only movement and its adherents insist on using only the KJV Bible. Based on their interpretation of it, they believe that ONLY the KJV got it right.

Fair enough, if that is the case.

But is it? Let's see.

What does this admission reveal?


1. Since Tyndale was credited as the person who coined the word "Passover". Thus, to be consistent, it should also follow that Tyndale should be credited for introducing the "Pagan Day, Easter" celebration into the Bible. And subsequently to Christendom.

And since this is the case, what then can we conclude?


2. That Easter is admittedly and undeniably a Pagan Day, a Pagan holiday.

Or as Mr. Holland et al had told us - "Herod was "in fact were celebrating his own Pagan Day, Easter".

So, with these facts well established. That Easter is indeed a Pagan Day celebration! And that Tyndale was the one responsible for putting Easter (by mistake) into the Bible (via the KJB), thus, any amount of questioning will prove fruitless and will not make these facts go away. No question about it, and no Trinitarian or any historian can refute this facts.

But, whether Herod was really "celebrating his own Pagan Day, Easter" , as mentioned in Acts 12, it remains to be seen. In fact whether they care or not, this is the most important question we need to answer because it puts the accuracy of the KJB translation into question as well as the integrity of the KJV Only movement and its supporters for the truth.

Why is that?

Well, because if they say, YES, that ... Herod was really "celebrating his own Pagan Day, Easter" , then:

Dilemma A):   They will have no choice (but to be honest) and  confess that Easter IS INDEED a Pagan Day. Hence it puts into question their associating a "Pagan Day, Easter" with the Lord Jesus Christ. In other words, what does a Christian, a footstep follower of Christ have to do with a Pagan holiday, Easter?

If truth is what they seek, then truth be told:

"Ye cannot drink the cup of the Lord, and the cup of devils: ye cannot be partakers of the Lord's table, and of the table of devils." [1Co 10:21 KJV]

But if they say, NO, that Herod was not "celebrating his own Pagan Day, Easter" ,then:

Dilemma B): - They have to admit that the KJV Bible is in error. Something they are NOT prepared to do nor will not do so since many if not all ("KJV Onlyites") believe that the KJB translation is INFALLIBLE and that it does not contain any error.

Hence, they will have to  ignore their own Dilemmas A, and B and take:

Dilemma C):  : That is, pretend that such things (mistakes and outright lie) doesn't exist when it comes to the KJB translation!

So which side do you think they will lean on?

What a dilemma or I should say conundrum they've gotten themselves into, isn't it Brother Rando?

In any case, reasoning this out further. Since we already know what they are going to say, i.e. "the KJB translation is "infallible" and contain no mistakes", thus we should expect that they will take  C)  and hope against all hope that no one is listening and paying attention and that no one will point out the mistakes. Or as the saying goes, "pay no attention to the man behind the curtain"?

But if they take this route, Dilemma C) - then it gets worst as they have no choice but to prove their case while at the same time trying to convince people that it's "all right 'wink-wink- with God to celebrate a Pagan Day, Easter in order to commemorate the Lord Jesus Christ' resurrection".

Or that Herod's Easter celebration is different from today's "Easter celebration".

(Yeah right! Easter bunny egg my foot!)

Furthermore, they'll have to convince people that Tyndale did not err when he translated 'Pesach' into "Easter" (instead of Passover).

They will have to convinced people that the Jews were willing to attend the "execution of Peter" (to quote DH) during a "Pagan Day, Easter" celebration, of the goddess of fertility Ishtar/Ashtoreth -  the queen of heaven (Jer. 7:18) - along with the Easter bunny laying Easter eggs.

That Herod was indeed was going to "execute Peter" during/on his "OWN Pagan holiday" WITH the Jews just right AFTER they (themselves as a Nation) celebrated their own sacred holiday, the Passover.

Now, how insane is that explanation? Yet, that's what D Holland want's people to believe!

Furthermore, since Herod (a cunning politician as he is) was trying to gain favor with the Jews, -especially with the religious leaders of Judaism- why would he use a "Pagan Day, Easter" for his bidding? It doesn't make political sense. Imagine that, convinced your opponents to side with you by insulting them with a Pagan celebration by "sacrificing" a man!  How far can simple facts be stretched to hide the truth?

But as already mentioned, a close examination and reading in context of Acts 12:4 show a very simple uncomplicated truth. That is, that Herod was mainly waiting for the Jews to finish celebrating their Passover, and that AFTER the (Jewish) Passover, he will produce Peter for them. And just like he found favor in their eyes, when "He put James the brother of John to death by the sword" (Acts 14:2,3), he also saw opportunity to further his cause using Peter.

That's all to it! Nothing more, nothing less.

As NWT correctly and accurately puts it:

“. . .He seized him and put him in prison, turning him over to four shifts of four soldiers each to guard him, intending to bring him out before the people after the Passover . . .” (Acts 12:4)

In addition, why would a nation who strongly believe that they are the 'sons of Abraham' (John 8:39; Matt. 3:9)  participate in a "Pagan Day, Easter", and get themselves defiled (Acts 10:28) and be condemned by the Law (of Moses) they strictly adhere to (Deut 20)?

So why in the world will they do such a thing, just for one man's sake - Peter?

Other than of course the Tyndale mistranslation,  it'll be a stretch of imagination to come up with a simple, valid and a logical explanation to clear these things out!

But then again, if one is locked in or is bent and blind on not accepting that a mistake or ANY mistake was made in the translation of the original Bible into the KJV Bible, then one has to defend it at any cost. One has to come up with an elaborate explanation just to make it so, because the alternative is unpalatable, to accept Dilemmas A and B as truth.

That is:

Admit that:

a) They (Christendom/KJB Onlyites) are knowingly celebrating a Pagan Holiday, Easter in relation to Christ, which is a blatant lie.


b) The KJB translation is in error (here also).


c) by so doing, finally admit that we Jehovah's Witnesses were right all along.

So, what say you Brother Rando, does the word Easter as celebrated in Christendom belong in the Bible? Anything to add?

Thanks again,
Eddie G


Supplemental info:

Some of the Bible Translations that contain the "Pagan" word " Easter" and the word "Passover" at Acts 12:4 :

KJV :Easter
American KJV: Easter
DNKJV: Easter

NWT: Passover
NKJV : Passover
NIV : Passover
ESV : Passover
NASB: Passover
RSV: Passover
ASV : Passover
YLT : Passover
DBY : Passover
WEB: Passover
NLT: Passover
HCSB : Passover
ISV: Passover
NETB: Passover
ABPE: Passover
GWT: Passover
JB2000: Passover
KJ2000 Bible: Passover
ERV: Passover
WBT: Passover
WNT: Passover
WEB: Passover
Douay-Rheims Bible: pasch
HNV: Pesach


Thank you for exposing the dilemma that trinitarians claim Easter is correct because Herod was a pagan.  By admitting Herod was Pagan shows that Easter is therefore a Pagan Holy Day.  The whole argument is mute, they claim that Herod was holding Peter for himself is inaccurate.  First of all, Herod was not holding Peter for himself but for the Jews as you previously pointed out.  Let's look at the KJV.

"And he killed James the brother of John with the sword. And because he saw it pleased the Jews , he proceeded further to take Peter also." (Acts 12:2-3)  Herod was holding Peter to please the Jews .  The same ones who killed Jesus were thrilled to have Christ's followers killed. These were the ones Herod was holding Peter for, the ones who continued celebrating the Passover because they rejected Jesus as the Christ .  Easter is never the translation for pascha.  Most translations recognize that Easter was in fact an error and a disastrous theological perversion.  The King James Version plundered the word of God once again in its' deceptions.

We already know Herod is a Pagan but the Jews were the ones seeking to silence the good news about Jesus Christ.  Those Apostates were trying to get rid of Christ's followers!  Passover after "the death of Christ" was the celebration for Apostate Jews because they denied Jesus as the Christ.  The Apostles (true Christians) never celebrated Passover after 33 CE, for Christ is our Passover and Jesus as the Lamb of God instituted the Memorial in its' place.   

Take Care,
Brother Rando

PS...  It's interesting that an Apostate on the JWForum would claim Easter is an invention of the holy spirit in the sixteenth century when Easter origins come from Eastre 4,200 years ago.  Who really invented Easter??  

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Brother Rando


Brother Rando is a student of Prophecy and one of Jehovah's Witnesses in good standing with the Faithful and Discreet slave. His interests are directed towards how the time of the end would come about. The earth’s population today is going through a physical, spiritual and emotional tribulation that has been prophesied concerning a time of distress as it enters into a cleansing period of removing wickedness by means of God’s Kingdom. (Daniel 12:1) Brother Rando’s discussions are of keen interest to many who await for God's Kingdom. He asserts that his discussions are just that, and not Prophecies, nor does he make the claim to be inspired. His authority is the Bible. He proclaims the year 2034 to be of very high interest to all. Like a GPS, that gives Insight to location, 2034 allows us to gauge where we are in the stream of time according to God’s Will. According to Brother Rando, the Bible carries two thoughts in it’s passages, one is fleshy and the other is spiritual. Jesus Christ warned Peter of thinking fleshy and that this type of thinking is not from God. (Matthew 16:23) In order to measure time, a method of measurement is needed. Measuring time by “the day” would mean a 24 hour period. However, measuring “the day” spiritually would mean a period of time yet to be revealed using other scripture to interpret the method needed. By looking into the Bible, we can actually determine what God meant by “the day” when looking into his Word on how his Will would come about. As we read (Genesis 2:16-17) the punishment for disobedience was death “in the day”. As time went on, the scriptures do begin to reveal the time frame of “the day”. According to Genesis 5:5, Adam lived 930 years and then he died. Satan who thinks like a man, got it wrong! (Genesis 3:4-5) Why Study the Bible


In Brother Rando’s research of the Bible, he found scripture does interpret other scripture. The answer to how long a day was, according to God’s Will was found in Psalms 90:4 and 2 Peter 3:8. This is vital to gaining understanding in how we are to measure time in God’s view. Spiritually and not fleshy or physical. A day in heavens time is a thousand years to us. It’s by this method we can measure time and where we are in the stream of time of the end. In answer Jesus said to them: “Break down this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.” (John 2:19) Was Jesus indicating that he was the Temple of God, God’s Kingdom? And that the temple would in fact be destroyed or broken down? According to God’s Word, the following scripture is the basis for Salvation. “For if you publicly declare that ‘word in your own mouth,’ that Jesus is Lord, and exercise faith in your heart that God raised him up from the dead, you will be saved.” (Romans 10:9) In order for John 2:19 and Romans 10:9 to come in line, did Jesus utter a prophecy about God's Kingdom since he stated, “I will raise it up”? IF the basis for salvation is that Jesus is Lord and that God raised him up. We can conclude that Jesus did not raise himself up, but it was God that raised him from the dead since he was dead and conscious of nothing at all. (Ecc 9:5) Jesus prophesied that HE would raise God's Kingdom. (Rev 5:10) Jesus was speaking prophetically of raising the temple within the third day of a thousand years. Jesus warned Peter not to think the thoughts of man. (Matthew 16:23) Based on 2 Peter 3:8 we are able to determine the time frame to when God’s Kingdom would be raised up by Jesus Christ. Jesus was put to death on Nisan 14, 33CE. The two days would actually represent two thousand years and we come up with the year 2033. Jesus stated,“in three days I will raise it up.” So the third day is upon us in 2034.

“I fully support, acknowledge and cooperate with *The Faithful Steward and Its' Governing Body* of Jehovah’s Witnesses.” I am property of the "Faithful and Discreet Slave" that Jesus, my brother, is appointing over his belongings. This Slave is the Governing Body of Jehovah's Earthly Organization known Worldwide as "Jehovah's Witnesses". When the Mountain-like organizations act against God's chosen people after Babylon has been destroyed, Jehovah will slaughter those who are touching the pupils of his eyes. Even though Babylon the Great is spoken as a woman and she has fallen in (Rev. 14:8), the sacred secret is that she is not a woman at all, but the World of False Religion that will be utterly destroyed by the personal hand of Jesus Christ as (King Abaddon) in the coming Great Tribulation never to be found again! (Matthew 24:14)

Secular Historians point to the Temple in Jerusalem being destroyed in 70 AD by the Romans. But was Jesus Christ speaking in a physical sense since that Temple is non-existent today? Jehovah Witnesses assert that Jesus under inspiration of Holy Spirit was actually prophesying about his spiritual body as the only means to approach his Heavenly Father. (John 14:6) Not the Temple made by hands or his fleshy body as Christendom claims, but his spiritual body, known as the Body of Christ. (1 Cor 12:27) This would actually be the Collective Representative of God’s Kingdom in how we can approach the One True God JEHOVAH. Brother Rando is not the first to come up with this time frame. In the first part of 1914, the Bible Students known as International Bible Students Association discussed the “time of trouble” on the printed page called The Bible Students Monthly. Early in 1914, an issue of The Bible Students Monthly was issued with the large bold heading “END OF WORLD IN 1914? Some have quoted the large headline of this tract as proof that Russell was expecting the “end of the world” in 1914. However, such neglect the subheading under the larger headline, which states: “NOT THE VIEW OF PASTOR RUSSELL NOR OF I.B.S.A.” International Bible Students Association: "Nevertheless, when viewed from God’s standpoint, we are still “shortly after” 1914. Although Russell himself did not think the time of trouble would be this long, he did allow that it could be. It is possible that the time allotted for this period is 120 years (1914+120=2034), but that these days will be “cut short” some time before they are allowed to reach their end. We do not put this forth as a “prophecy”, nor would we feel anything was wrong if 2034 came and went and nothing had happened as far the full binding of Satan and the destruction of his empire is concerned. All things are in God’s hands."

According to the discussion, 1914 represents the year that the earth would enter into a time of distress and that time limit could very well be 120 years. Which again, brings up the year 2034. The year 1914 is derived by a prophecy of the end of the Gentile times. Brother Rando insists that we should not live by a date, but to use this time to get right with God. Jesus continually pointed that the people who were on the earth when he would raise God’s Temple would be like those people in Noah’s time, taking no note. Where do the 120 years come from? If we read Genesis 6:3, most people think of this scripture in the fleshy sense of man’s lifespan. But could there be a spiritual meaning, giving those with Insight a divine warning? The Bible does say, “make secret the words and seal up the book, until the time of [the] end.” (Daniel 12:4) Could it be, this world has entered into it’s Last Days in 1914? (1 Timothy 3:1-5) Yet there is another scripture that helps us measure the time. In Ecclesiastes 6:6 it reads, “Even supposing that he has lived a thousand years twice over and yet he has not seen what is good, is it not to just one place that everyone is going?” The chapter talks about vanity and that if a person actually lived two thousand years without God’s Kingdom we are all heading to the same place. Since death was the punishment, we would need God’s Kingdom to conquer death, the place we all are heading. A thousand years twice over is two thousand years. Simple math again brings us to the time of 2034, when the second thousand years has been brought to it’s finish. Could Christ Millennial reign be from 2034 to 3034? We don’t know. Jesus stated, he would raise God’s Temple in the third day, so we can expect God's Kingdom to be fully operating sometime between the years 2034 and 3034. However, Jesus Christ was risen first thing on the very morning in the third day. Most Bible readers are in agreement that Christ does rule for a thousand years.

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