Jehovah`s Witness/Hebrfews 1:10
Well that was a long complicated answer but I was able to work my way through it. Lets just stay on the context again. You did not mention anything about verse 10 “And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands”. The previous verses clearly tell us that God is speaking as you nicely pointed out snd here he have God saying the the Lord (Jesus) is the one that created the heavens and the earth. Compare that with Genesis 1:1 “ In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth.” Dont forget John 1:3 “All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.” Therefore the context points to Jesus as being God.
Again thank you for your question and I apologise for not covering that point in my previous answer as I did not want to overload you or other readers with information.
Now as far as Hebrews I:10
is concerned, this is going to surprise you, yes we agree that it is addressed to Jesus and that it is saying Jesus “laid the foundation of earth and the heavens”.
So how can that be and does not that make Jesus God the creator?
Lets look at John 1:3
see how different Bibles render a couple of words.
“All things were made by
him; and without
him was not any thing made that was made.” (JKV)
him all things were made; without
him nothing was made that has been made” (NIV)
“All things came into being through
Him, and apart
from Him nothing came into being that has come into being” (NAS)
First of all I want to look at by
The Greek word used here is "dia" (see Strongs Greek word number 1223) and has the meaning “; a primary preposition denoting the channel of an act; through”.
Now the other words I highlighted without
. This is the Greek word choris meaning “at a space, i.e. separately or apart from,
The idea of without
tells us that something was done with the HELP or AID of a second person. Example...
“I could not have removed that rock without the help
“(X could be another person or some sort of tool that I used) The word without tells us that there some form of help. Or it could mean that I moved the rock and had no help at all. “I removed that rock without any help at all)
Now the word Apart
. What does that tell us?
It could have a similar meaning to without. “Apart
from the help given to me by X
, I could not have removed that rock” Or again it could mean that when I removed the rock there was no help.
How are we to take John 1:3
What that text is telling us is, that God created everything through the agency (or help) of Jesus. Every thing except for (apart form Jesus) which God did on his own – no help – no agency.
Well how can Jesus be said to have “laid the foundation of earth and the heavens”?
That goes directly to the word “dia” (through the agency of).
I have never commissioned a house to have been built but I have friends that have. The conversation could go something along these lines.
Friend “I am going to build
a new house for my family”
ME “Are you doing the work your self or getting a builder”
Friend” I am using “SO am SO to help me build”
ME “Are you using your own plan or someone else’s”
Friend “I have designed the house so we are using my plan”
ME “What about the materials?”
Friend “I have done the engineering reports, costings and organised all the materials, but So and So is going the work”
Some time later I get an invite
Friend “Come see the house that I built
The contractor (agent that built the house) is also present. Both men talk about this house as if they individually built it
Which one is correct?
Do they both hold the same position of responsibility?
The one who organised every thing and supplied all the materials can rightly be said to have built that house and call it his house. The one who did all the work under the direction of the originator of the idea can also likewise lay claim to having built that house. Both from different perspectives.
That is what John 1:3
is simply teaching us. God originated the idea of creation the heavens and the earth supplied the knowledge power and materials to do so and Jesus as Gods master worker (Proverbs 8:30
) was also there to lay out the foundations of heaven and earth.
The last part of that text “and without
[or apart from] him was not any thing made that was made.” what is that telling us? That except for Jesus whom God made on his own, everything else was made through the agency of Jesus.
“All things came into existence through him, and apart from him not even one thing came into existence. What has come into existence” (NWT)
Ok I hope I have been able to explain why Jesus is also said to have laid the foundations of heaven and earth, but what about the quote itself. Hebrews I:10
Says “And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning.... (KJV). That is a quote from Psalm 102:25
which reads in the KJV “Of old hast thou laid the foundation of the earth: and the heavens are the work of thy hands.?”
This Psalm is addressed to God so when Hebrews says “and thou Lord” is not the word Lord here refering to God? That is the conclusion that trinitatrinas have come to. Again looking at the context of Hebrews 1 we see something different. Three times in a few verses Paul quotes from the OT and applies writings that originally refer to someone else and applies them to Jesus
The first example is found in Hebrews 1:5
“...And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son?” This is a quote from 2 Samuel 7:13,14
, Here we find the prophet Nathan telling King David that he would not have the privilege of building a temple to God but that Salomon would. God speaking of Solomon,says “ and I will stablish the throne of his kingdom for ever. 14 I will be his father, and he shall be my son.” (JKV)
In Hebrews Paul now assigns these words as applying to Jesus. Now we know that Jesus and Solomon are not the same person.
It is similar with Hebrews 1:8
which I discussed in the last answer. Paul is taking the words addressed to an earthly king (many commentators fell that was Solomon, though we are not directly told that) and he applies those words to Jesus.
Paul has done the same thing with verse 10. Taken words first used to apply to another and applied them to Jesus.
The overall context of Hebrews 1 tells us that God is the superior and that Jesus is a subordinate one that has been exulted to a superior position because he was faithful to his assignment here on earth to the point of death (Phil. 2:8,9
“8... he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death,... 9 ... God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name” [KJV] )
The reward for his faithful service is to be placed above the angels, and given the honour that Paul speaks of in this chapter.
In Hebrews 1 we are told that Jesus is appointed as heir of God (Heb 1:2
is an express image of God and granted to sit down at Gods right hand (Heb 1:3
Jesus is anointed by God because loved righteousness, and hated iniquity (Heb 1:9
It is because of those reasons and the explanations in the previous answers that tell us that Jesus is not equal to HIS God and our God, and that Hebrews 1
is not identifying Jesus as God.