Jehovah`s Witness/Important Questions
I've been in the company of many JWs
They never seem to answer direct questions!
Am told lots of other questions I never as
Yet am told by other JWs in different places
Ask lots of questions!
I find this odd!
They never gave the answer to the question your asking
Am going to ask a few questions, yet stay focus on that question.
Could you please show me were in the bible Jesus calls God the Father, Jehovah ?
In showing me!
I mean by Scripture in the Bible
Hello Free thinking
Thank you for giving me the opportunity to be of assistance for you, I hope I can do what you have asked.
As to your question
Could you please show me were in the bible Jesus calls God the Father, Jehovah ?
I will be direct and to the point. As at this time no known ancient Greek manuscript of the New Testament (NT) contains the full name Jehovah. There are no original
NT manuscripts that have been found. Not only that, there no first century copies
of any of the original writings have been found. What we have are partial copies starting from the second century. Of those manuscripts none of them have been found to actually contain the name Jehovah. However an abbreviated form of the name “Jah” is included in the manuscripts that contain the Bible book of Revelation.
I would like to think about this when you look at the information bellow. What nation was Jesus born into? He was Hebrew. What was the name of the God of the Hebrews? It was YHWH in English Yahweh or Jehovah.
At the front of some Bibles there is often an explanation as to why the the Old Testament we have the word lord in all capitals [LORD]. They tell is that this is where the divine name was written in the Hebrew texts. Some Bibles will then yell us that due to superstitions the Jews stopped pronouncing the divine name in case they blasphemed
Remember what Jesus said in prayer at John 17 : 26 “And I have declared
unto them thy name
, and will
declare it” (KJV)
Does it seem reasonable that as the son who was loved by his father, and, loved his father that he would declare or proclaim his fathers name?
Now I would like to share with you just one example from several different Bibles that you can look up on the internet.. May I suggest that you do look up the links to make sure I have copied them correctly. The occasion was when Satan was tempting Jesus after his baptism and his return from the wilderness. I have put the interesting words in bold.
New Living Translation http://biblehub.com/nlt/matthew/4.htm
The Temptation of Jesus
1 Then Jesus was led by the Spirit into the wilderness to be tempted there by the devil. 2 For forty days and forty nights he fasted and became very hungry.
3 During that time the devil came and said to him, “If you are the Son of God, tell these stones to become loaves of bread.”
4 But Jesus told him, “No! The Scriptures say,
‘People do not live by bread alone,
but by every word that comes from the mouth of God.’”
5 Then the devil took him to the holy city, Jerusalem, to the highest point of the Temple, 6 and said, “If you are the Son of God, jump off! For the Scriptures say,
‘He will order his angels to protect you.
And they will hold you up with their hands
so you won’t even hurt your foot on a stone.’”
7 Jesus responded, “The Scriptures also say, ‘You must not test the LORD
8 Next the devil took him to the peak of a very high mountain and showed him all the kingdoms of the world and their glory. 9“I will give it all to you,” he said, “if you will kneel down and worship me.”
10 “Get out of here, Satan,” Jesus told him. “For the Scriptures say,
‘You must worship the LORD
and serve only him.’”
Another example can be found at http://biblehub.com/esv/matthew/4.htm
The King James Bible and many others do not put LORD in all capitals here, they just put lord or Lord.
This next Bible has a footnote (h) next to Lord. I have put copied the footnote and put in bold [ ]
7Jesus responded to him, “It is also written, ‘You must not tempt the Lord (h) your God.’” [(h) MT source citation reads LORD ]
In this next cut and past, please notice the words in bold (they are in a Hebrew font that did not transfer very well) Next to the Hebrew word I have in [ ] the English equivalent
The Scriptures (ISR 1998) http://biblehub.com/isr/matthew/4.htm
1 Then יהושע
[ Joshua or Jesus ] was led up by the Spirit into the wilderness to be tried by the devil.
2 And after having fasted forty days and forty nights, He was hungry.
3 And the trier came and said to Him, “If You are the Son of Elohim, command that these stones become bread.”
4 But He answering, said, “It has been written, ‘Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that comes from the mouth of יהוה
[YHWH or Jehovah]. ’ ”
5 Then the devil took Him up into the set-apart city, set Him on the edge of the Set-apart Place,
6 and said to Him, “If You are the Son of Elohim, throw Yourself down. For it has been written, ‘He shall command His messengers concerning you,’ and, ‘In their hands they shall bear you up, so that you do not dash your foot against a stone.’ ”
7 י יהושע
[ Joshua or Jesus ]said to him, “It has also been written, ‘You shall not try יהוה
[YHWH or Jehovah] your Elohim.’ ”
8 Again, the devil took Him up on a very high mountain, and showed Him all the reigns of the world, and their esteem,
9 and said to Him, “All these I shall give You if You fall down and worship me.”
10 Then יהושע
[ Joshua or Jesus ]said to him, “Go, Satan! For it has been written, ‘You shall worship יהוה
[YHWH or Jehovah] your Elohim, and Him alone you shall serve.’ ”
Another Bible to look at is the New Heart English Bible Jehovah edition (you will have to cut and past this link into the search bar)
Why would these Bibles and others use LORD or Jehovah here instead of lord or Lord? That is because the words Jesus used were direct quotes from the OT Deuteronomy 6:16
and Deuteronomy 10:20
. The Greek Septuagint that was available at that time also used the divine name, so it does not matter if Jesus was quoting the Hebrew Text of tye Greek text of Deuteronomy, they both had the divine name at those places
So because Jesus said the had declared his fathers [Gods] name and was still to declare it our NWT says
“But he answered: “It is written: ‘Man must live, not on bread alone, but on every word that comes from Jehovah’s
] mouth.’” 5 Then the Devil took him along into the holy city, and he stationed him on the battlement of the temple 6 and said to him: “If you are a son of God, throw yourself down, for it is written: ‘He will give his angels a command concerning you,’ and, ‘They will carry you on their hands, so that you may not strike your foot against a stone.’” 7 Jesus said to him: “Again it is written: ‘You must not put Jehovah
] your God to the test.’” 8 Again the Devil took him along to an unusually high mountain and showed him all the kingdoms of the world and their glory. 9 And he said to him: “All these things I will give you if you fall down and do an act of worship to me.” 10 Then Jesus said to him: “Go away, Satan! For it is written: ‘It is Jehovah
] your God you must worship, and it is to him alone you must render sacred service.’”
You might like to checkout this KJV on line with links to the book of Deuteronomy. http://www.dnkjb.net/1189chapters/NT40MAT04.htm
So even though no Greek text known actually says that Jesus called God Jehovah there is ample evidence that he did.
Bellow is a cut and past from the following web site that may be of interets in this regard.
Regarding the occurrence of the divine name in the Christian Scriptures or New Testament, one Christian author made the following observation:
As to the Bible books written in the first century, there is no extant Greek manuscript evidence that the name appeared in any passage (Matthew to Revelation). Regarding the possibility that this was the case in the original text when quotations were made from the Hebrew text, George Howard (in a Hebrew Gospel of Matthew, 1995) writes:
“The occurrence of the Divine Name in ShemTob’s Matthew [contained in his treatise Even Bohan, a 14th-century polemic work designed to help Jews defend their faith] supports the conclusions I reached in an earlier study of the Tetragrammaton in the New Testament, basing my observations on the use of the Divine Name in the Septuagint and in the Dead Sea Scrolls. Some pre-Christian copies of the Septuagint, for example, contain the Divine Name written into the Greek text…In my previous study, I concluded that the New Testament writers, who had access to such copies of the Septuagint, may have preserved the Tetragrammaton in their biblical quotations from the Septuagint. Now Shem-Tob’s Matthew testifies to the use of the Divine Name in the New Testament… it is very unlikely that Shem-Tob inserted the Divine Name into his text. No Jewish polemist would have done that. Whatever the date of this text, it must have included the Divine Name from its inception. One final note regarding the Divine Name: Shem Tob’s Matthew shows a very conservative attitude toward its usage. The author of this text was not a radical Christian, arbitrarily supplying the gospel with the Tetragrammaton. His attitude was one of awe and respect. In fact, his use of the Divine Name corresponds to the conservative practice found in the Septuagint and in the Dead Sea Scrolls.”
[Note: Shem Tob’s Matthew, however, does not use YHWH, but employs “the Name” once and an abbreviated form thereof 18 other times.]
Whatever conclusion as to the written text of ‘New Testament’ writings that one may reach on the basis of such evidence, there is no reason to doubt that, when seeing his Father’s name in the Scriptures, Jesus would have read what was recorded and would have done likewise when quoting from memory. It was, however, the close filial relationship that Jesus expressed in calling God his Father that enraged the unbelieving Jews. (John 5:17, 18) He repeatedly addressed God as Father and taught his disciples to do the same. (Matthew 6:9; John 14:1-17:26) Therefore, if the divine name did occur in the original Greek manuscripts of the ‘New Testament,’ this would understandably not have been frequent, the emphasis being on the sonship of Jesus’ disciples.
Knowing and calling upon the name of Jehovah can contribute to a sense of trust and confidence in the Creator. It can also fill believers with great comfort and hope, especially when the significance of the name is understood—that is, there is a far richer meaning when one comes to know, intimately, the person represented by that name. The name itself can serve to remind the faithful that God “will always be there,” and that “he will fulfill every promise” he has made to his people in the holy Scriptures. Although we identify the Most High as “YHWH,” scripturally, it is entirely acceptable and appropriate for Christians to think of and refer to God as “Our Heavenly Father
,” as Jesus himself did and as he taught his disciples to do. (Matthew 6:9, 26; compare Galatians 4:6). It should never be overlooked that perhaps one of the most fitting and unmistakable ways to identify the one true God now is by the apostolic
(divinely authorized) designation found frequently throughout the inspired Christian writings. He is: “The God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ,
...the Father of Mercies and God of all Comfort...” (Romans 15:6, 2 Corinthians 1:2, 11:31, Ephesians 1:3; 17)
For another non JW link you might want to look at is http://www.lifespurpose.net/divinename/NameofGod3.htm#A17
Q17- Did Jesus never pronounce the divine name or did he rather use the title "Lord" (Adonay) ?
For a brief explanation of why some believe the 1st century NT writers used Jehovah but later why it was dropped see Q19- Did Jesus never pronounce the divine name or did he rather use the title "Lord" (Adonay) ? http://www.lifespurpose.net/divinename/NameofGod3.htm#A19
I do hope that I have been of some help for you.
Please feel free to ask any nore questions