QUESTION: Why has the watchtower perverted the word of God
In the new would translation bible. Notis the ‘I am… in the verses bellows then look at John 8;58
John 6:35 “I am the bread of life.
John 8:12 “I am the light of the world.
John 8:23 I am from the realms above.
John 10:11 I am the fine shepherd;
John 10:36 ‘I am God’s Son’?
John 11:25 “I am the resurrection and the life.
John 15:1 “I am the true vine,
Acts 9:5 “I am Jesus,
ANSWER: Hello and thank you for writing,
Please show me what proof do you have that it's twisted scripture or that the watchtower perverted the word of God? I would love to see the proof and not just someone's word for it, because that means nothing.
The Watchtower has not perverted the word of God in any way. The truth is that people who are Trinitarian's and have trinitarian views say that because we show time and time again that the Trinity is not Biblical.
If you do the research you will see that because someone says I AM doesn't mean they are God. Many people have said I AM. I say it all the time, I am going to the store, I am your mother, I am a woman.
Is it proper grammar to say. Going to the store, I am. Your mother, I am. No, people that speak English do not speak that way.
The correct way to say that scripture is:
John 8:58 "Jesus said to them: “Most truly I say to you, before Abraham came into existence, I have been"
John 8:58 (KJV) "Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am."
Is not correct grammar for the English language. So then you have to ask the question, why would they do that?
All the scriptures you listed above begin with I AM, they do not end with it. John 8:58 ends with it, therefore, you can't say I AM for proper English grammar at the end of a sentence like that.
When people are trying to prove an unprovable trinity, then the use of improper grammar doesn't seem to matter.
It should say, "I have been" (I exist(ed)) for proper grammar, "I have been" is correct because the scripture is letting the audience know that Jesus, God's son, was alive before Abraham was, nothing more, nothing less.
That verse in no way is saying that Jesus is Almighty God.
In fact, God's name is Jehovah, not Jesus. (Ps. 83:18) God has said I am Jehovah and Jesus has said I am Jesus, I am God's son. Jesus has never said he was Almighty God or Jehovah, ever! Neither has either of them ever said in the Bible that Jesus used to be Jehovah, nor is there any where in the Bible that says Jesus is Almighty God, God incarnate or any of the like. In fact Jesus' name means "Jehovah is Salvation"
People want to try to grab at anything they can to try to make the Bible agree with the Trinity, and it just doesn't. So they try to twist the scriptures.
at 1 Tim. 1:15, Paul said, "...I am chief" Will you say that he is God now since he said I AM?
at Jer. 1:6, "...I am a boy" is he God too? He said I AM.
There are tons of I am's in the Bible. You can't possibly make all of them into Almighty God, and you can't single out one trying to prove a trinity. It just doesn't make sense or add up.
Stong's Lexicon, even with some of it's biasness, says regarding Exodus 3:14
to exist, i.e. be or become, come to pass (always emphatic, and not a mere copula or auxiliary)
THAT I AM
to exist, i.e. be or become, come to pass (always emphatic, and not a mere copula or auxiliary)
Improper grammar is used to keep it "I am" because of trinitarian bias in John 8:58 instead of making it be proper grammar.
I, the first-person pronoun. A primary pronoun of the first person I.
I am, exist. The first person singular present indicative; a prolonged form of a primary and defective verb; I exist.
In Exodus 3:14, it should say, "I Will Become What I Choose to Become" instead of "I am that I am" As you can see from above - become, be, exist -
What many people mistakenly think is that Jehovah was for the first time telling Moses what his name was. But Jehovah was not doing that, He was relating a quality about himself. Moses already knew God's name and so did all of the Israelites and other people.
In fact, Moses' own mother's name Jochebed means "Jehovah is Glory" and when Eve gave birth to Cain, she said:
Gen. 4:1 (ASV) "And the man knew Eve his wife; and she conceived, and bare Cain, and said, I have gotten a man with the help of Jehovah."
A name back then wasn't just a label, but it had major meaning behind them, it signified something, that's why Abram's name was changed to Abraham, Sarai to Sarah, all of which had meaning behind them and why God changed their names. Jacob's name was changed to Israel. Why? Because of the meaning behind it.
There is no doubt that God's name Jehovah was known, so when Moses asked him about his name it was about what he would do because the Israelites were in slavery and was losing hope in Jehovah because of their affliction. So to just say Jehovah is going to save them would mean nothing to them at that time because Jehovah had always been their God anyway. But what did that name become to them when he freed them? It had meaning behind it. That's what Moses was asking.
Even more so because right after Jehovah said that in verse 14, he says in the very next verse that his name is Jehovah (YHWH or JHVH) FOREVER!
Exodus 3:15 (ASV) "And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, Jehovah, the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name forever, and this is my memorial unto all generations."
So people take Exodus 3:14, saying I AM that I AM, (even though that's not totally correct) and then try to pair it with John 8:58, I am, (which again is improper English grammar) to try and prove something that isn't true. The only thing with that is that a lie cannot be proved. Thus the Trinity "Mystery"
If you want more proof let me know, I have tons more I can show you if you like.
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QUESTION: you won't proof
Chick your scripture with The Kingdom interlinear translation of the Greek Scriptures 1985
Matthew 5:19 be called least in [relation] to the Kingdom
Greek least one will be called in the kingdom of heavens;
Mark 1:4 preaching baptism in [symbol] of repentance
Greek preaching baptism of repentance
John 1:1 and the Word was a god.
Greek and the word was god
John 6:56 Remains in union with me,
Greek in me remaining
John 8:56 I have been.”
Greek I am.
John 14:14 If you ask anything in my name, I will do it.
Greek if ever anything you should ask me in the name of me this I shall do
Romans 8:1 Therefore, those in union with Christ Jesus have no condemnation.
Greek Nothing really now condemnation
Romans 10:13 For “everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah
Greek for who likely might call upon the name of Lord
ANSWER: Hello again and thank you for writing,
That's not proof at all, why would you think that is proof, because the wording is different? Or because of a biased view?
I'm not sure how familiar you are with the English language, but when translating from a completely different language such as Greek or Hebrew there are many things to take into consideration. It cannot be a complete word for word translation because it would not make sense in English, so the wording may be different but the meaning is what is important.
The NWT 2013 was revised to help people who speak and understand the English language to be able to understand the meaning behind what is trying to be conveyed by the Bible writer, this means using context and keeping in harmony with other Bible texts in the ENTIRE Bible, because even though the Bible was written by about 40 different inspired men, there is only ONE author, and that is Jehovah God! And his letter to us, the Bible, is in complete harmony.
And there is not ONE Bible translator that is or was inspired of God.
Therefore, any one who takes on the task of translating from one language to another has to make it so it's understood in that said language.
I'll just take one example from your "proof" list above.
You put: Romans 10:13 For “everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah
Greek for who likely might call upon the name of Lord
On the JW website, jw.org, if you go to the online library, click on Bible, there are several translations listed there, including the Kingdom Interlinear, King James Version, Byington, and American Standard Version.
So I'm going to put that scripture here:
NWT = For “everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will be saved."
Kingdom Interlinear = everyone for who likely might call upon the name of Lord will be saved.
KJV = For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.
ASV = for, Whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.
So as we can see from these four Bibles, the wording is slightly different, but we can still gather that the meaning is about calling on a name to be saved. So the question is, what is the name of the Lord? And is Lord even a name? And is there any other context in the Bible that says this that we can draw from?
To answer we'll need to use common sense, the English language correctly, and most important, the Bible.
I'll start with, is Lord a name? No, it's not a name, it is a title. So therefore, we need to know what name is being spoken about. Since there is no way you can change a title into a name, even though many people try to do that and justify it, it just doesn't wash. There are many titles, one person can be a mother, a teacher, a daughter, a sister, a niece, an aunt, a cousin, a co worker, a manager, even a Queen. All of those that I listed are mere titles, but that doesn't tell us what that person's name is. So Lord is the same way, it's just a title, Jehovah has many titles, but just one name. Plus the Bible says, there are many gods and many lords (1 Cor 8:5 Byington "for, though it be a fact that there are so-called gods whether in heaven or on earth (as there are many “gods” and many “lords”),"
With that in mind, can one honestly conclude that the title Lord is God's name? And since names were given back then that had special meaning behind them, even so much so that names were changed to fit different meanings, that God himself would not have a personal name?
Since God is the author of the Bible, isn't it reasonable to conclude that God would have a real name and not just an impersonal title, such as Lord? Well the Bible itself tells exactly what God's name is:
Psalms 83:18 KJV "That men may know that thou, whose name alone is JEHOVAH, art the most high over all the earth."
Here we see that God does have a name, and it's JEHOVAH! To deny God's name is to deny Him and to deny His scriptures!
It's interesting that that scripture says, "whose name ALONE is JEHOVAH"
The Bible also lets us know that Jehovah will not and has not and never will change his name to any other name, and certainly not to a mere title such as Lord or god.
Exodus 3:15 (ASV) ".....Jehovah, the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name forever,....."
So now the Bible without any doubt whatsoever has shown you what God's name is, why fight against what the Bible says? Do you think that is wise to do? How do you think Jehovah feels about people who tell him that he doesn't have a name or that he changed it to something else, who do you think has the authority and audacity to over ride and over step what God has said in his word the Bible? Sad to say, many people today think they can do exactly that.
Now on to the last question I listed above, is there any other context in the Bible that we can draw from as to why the NWT Bible put Jehovah instead of Lord in that scripture of Romans 10:13.
First, please take a look at Chapter 10 of the book of Romans, what do we notice about what Paul is writing here?
Well we see that Paul is quoting from the Hebrew scriptures through out that chapter, in vs. 5 he quoted what Moses wrote in Lev. 18:5. In vs. 16, he quoted what Isaiah wrote in Isaiah 53:1; is there a quote for vs. 13? Yes!
Paul was here quoting from the prophet Joel which says:
Joel 2:32 (ASV) "...that whosoever shall call on the name of Jehovah shall be delivered;"
Joel 2:32 (Byinton) "And everyone who calls on Jehovah’s name will come off safe;"
But here we see the Bible translators of the KJV, has:
Joel 2:32 (KJV) "that whosoever shall call on the name of the LORD shall be delivered:"
Now, since Joel used God's name Jehovah and Paul is quoting from Joel, there is no doubt Paul used God's name Jehovah, just as Joel did! We already established what God's name is, it's not Lord. So now you have to ask yourself this question, again, who has the authority and audacity to remove God's name from the Bible and replace it with a mere title! Yet, as we see that the only Bible listed above that correctly quoted Joel at Romans 10:13 is the NWT!
Again, people who translated the Bible has taken it upon themselves to remove God's name from the very book he authored! Yet instill some of those same Bible translators have no problem using the names of false gods.
For example, take the King James Version, they removed God's name Jehovah (only left it in 4 places, the newest version removed it completely) and replaced it with the title LORD, yet, they have no problem with using the names of false god's!!
1 Samuel 5:3 (KJV) "And when they of Ashdod arose early on the morrow, behold, Dagon was fallen upon his face to the earth before the ark of the LORD. And they took Dagon, and set him in his place again."
It should have Jehovah not LORD, as in this Bible:
1 Samuel 5:3 (ASV) And when they of Ashdod arose early on the morrow, behold, Dagon was fallen upon his face to the ground before the ark of Jehovah. And they took Dagon, and set him in his place again."
Zephaniah 1:5 (KJV) "And them that worship the host of heaven upon the housetops; and them that worship and that swear by the LORD, and that swear by Malcham;"
Zephaniah 1:5 (ASV) "and them that worship the host of heaven upon the housetops; and them that worship, that swear to Jehovah and swear by Malcam;"
1 Kings 11:31, 33 (KJV) "And he said to Jeroboam, Take thee ten pieces: for thus saith the LORD, the God of Israel, Behold, I will rend the kingdom out of the hand of Solomon, and will give ten tribes to thee:" 33 "Because that they have forsaken me, and have worshipped Ashtoreth the goddess of the Zidonians, Chemosh the god of the Moabites, and Milcom the god of the children of Ammon, and have not walked in my ways,"
1 Kings 11:31, 33 (ASV) "And he said to Jeroboam, Take thee ten pieces; for thus saith Jehovah, the God of Israel, Behold, I will rend the kingdom out of the hand of Solomon, and will give ten tribes to thee" 33 "because that they have forsaken me, and have worshipped Ashtoreth the goddess of the Sidonians, Chemosh the god of Moab, and Milcom the god of the children of Ammon; and they have not walked in my ways,"
So as you can see, what you should be questioning is why God's name has been removed from Bibles by translators. And if they have the audacity to remove God's name, what else has been tampered with?
Satan has religions, and those who follow those so called Christian religions that Satan the great deceiver has set up, will not be given the truth about God and definitely would not use God's name or want God's name to be known or used. Since Satan couldn't successfully get rid of all the Bibles, he made sure that the people who followed his religions removed God's name Jehovah from their translations. Now that's perverting the word of God in the highest magnitude imaginable. And it cannot be denied!! Those are the facts.
Since that is God's name, why would anyone who claims to love God go along with such audacity and deception and lies? I find it hard to believe anyone that claims to love God but then fight against the use of his name, refuse to pray to him, and refuse to accept that he alone is the Almighty and want to say his son Jesus is. When the Bible doesn't say that. According to many Bible scriptures, God's name is important, and if you don't know his name, then who are you praying to? How can you put faith and trust in a God you don't even know exists because people have perverted God's word by removing it? If you want to be on the true God's side whose name is Jehovah, then I suggest you leave Satan's views and religions alone while you still have time.
As Romans says:
Romans 10:13-15 "For “everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will be saved.” 14 However, how will they call on him if they have not put faith in him? How, in turn, will they put faith in him about whom they have not heard? How, in turn, will they hear without someone to preach? 15 How, in turn, will they preach unless they have been sent out? Just as it is written: “How beautiful are the feet of those who declare good news of good things!”
Have a good day,
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QUESTION: the translators of the NWT are "diabolical deceivers."
WHOLE Bible verses deleted in the "New World Translation" why
Matthew 17:21 -- COMPLETELY removed.
Matthew 18:11 –
Matthew 23:14 –
Mark 7:16 –
Mark 9:44 –
Mark 9:46 –
Mark 11:26 –
Mark 15:28 –
Mark 16:9-20 (all 12 verses) -- They separated the last 12 verses of Mark from the main text in an appendix (of sorts) with this detracting statement: "Some late manuscripts and versions contain a short conclusion after Mark 16:8, as follows] (New World Translation, Revised 1984 edition)
Luke 1:28 - Vitally important phrase COMPLETELY removed. "blessed art thou among women"
Luke 17:36 –
Luke 23:17 –
John 5:4 –
Jn. 7:53- 8:11 (all 12 verses) –
Acts 8:37 –
Acts 15:34 –
Act 24:6-8 –
Acts 28:29 –
Romans 16:24 –
Colossians 1:2 --
Colossians 2:2 --
I John 5:13 --
Rev 1:11 --
Rev 21:24 --
I John 5:7 -- "For there are three witness bearers,"
I will pray for you Rano
I highly suggest that before you defame anyone and slander them that you do some research and get your facts straight. You do realize that the NWT is not the only Bible that does not include those verses, the reason is explained in the Bible. They were added later by copysts and therefore are not considered part of the inspired scriptures, thousands of fragments of the scriptures have been found, and when they are compared, it was discovered that those verses had been added. Other Bible translators have done exactly the same way. Have you contacted the other Bible places that do not include those verses? Or is your hatred of JW's so intense that you are blinded and just don't care about truth? I am not going to explain each scripture. I'll mention about just one.
Luke 1:28 you say we removed an important phrase, yet that phrase that you claim is omitted isn't in the Kingdom Interlinear either, you were the one who said check against that, yet it doesn't have that wording either, and what is more the verses that are not in the NWT are also not in the Kingdom Interlinear. But if you would have done your research you would have seen that for yourself, in fact I think you did see that and that's why I say: Shame on you!
Do you think God is pleased with a person who hates others and out right lies on them? Thats what you are doing, trying to prove something you are not able to do, so you have resorted to slander and deceit.
Please pray for yourself, not me, as we do not worship the same God. My God has a name, Jehovah. In fact his son Jesus said we are to pray to his Father and sanctify his Father's name. Matt 6:9,10.
How can you show sanctity and respect for a name you refuse to even acknowledge?
My hope for you is that you put away hatred and learn about the amazing God JEHOVAH!