AboutBrenda Martin Expertise I have been one of Jehovah`s Witneses now for over 30 years, in those years I have brought up 4 children, teaching each of them the bible.Being one of Jehovah`s Witnesses has helped me cope with my Epilepsy and bring up a daughter with learning difficulties.I have conducted bible studies with people from nearly every denomination i.e. Muslim. Having used the bible all these years to answer peoples questions, I feel I am qualified to give any answer regarding Jehovah`s Witnesses and the bible.
Experience My experience has been one of attending bible lectures 5 times a week,taking part in these lectures in front of an audience and being with thousands of J.W. at conventions where I have seen the bible at work in peoples lives.It is truly a miracle when you see thousands of people meeting together and not one policeman needed, and not even a piece of litter in sight.It is like another world.
Question Q1- Is it true that nobody knows for sure how the name of God was pronounced?
Q2- Is it also true that the name Jehovah is prefered over the name YaHWeH, cause of the popularity the name Jehovah had over YaHWeH in it's currency regardless of not knowing exactly the true pronunciation?
Q3- It is also true that the name Jehovah was first used in LATIN not HEBREW, the year of 1270 by a LATIN MONK by the name of Raymundus Martini?
Q4- Is it also true that the King James Version (authourized version) was the first bible to use that name after it was revealed by Raymundus Martini?
The reason why KJV did not apply it throughout the old testament because not knowing for sure if it was the way it is pronounced. But watch Tower adopted that name for it's popularity.
What I don't understand is why the JWitnesses try their hardest to discredit KJV for the lack of use of the name Jehovah.
Do you agree with my questions?
V/R Luis
Answer Q1- IS IT TRUE THAT NOBODY KNOWS FOR SURE HOW THE NAME OF GOD WAS PRONOUNCED?
No human today can be certain how it was originally pronounced in Hebrew.
Q2- IS IT ALSO TRUE THAT THE NAME JEHOVAH IS PREFERED OVER THE NAME YAHWEH, CAUSE OF THE POPULARITY THE NAME JEHOVAH HAD OVER YAHWEH IN IT'S CURRENCY REGARDLESS OF NOT KNOWING EXACTLY THE TRUE PRONUNCIATION?
Many scholars favor the spelling “Yahweh,” but it is uncertain and there is not agreement among them. On the other hand, “Jehovah” is the form of the name that is most readily recognized, because it has been used in English for centuries and preserves, equally with other forms, the four consonants of the Hebrew Tetragrammaton.
Q3- IT IS ALSO TRUE THAT THE NAME JEHOVAH WAS FIRST USED IN LATIN NOT HEBREW, THE YEAR OF 1270 BY A LATIN MONK BY THE NAME OF RAYMUNDUS MARTINI?
While Jews, using the Bible in the original Hebrew language, refused to pronounce God’s name when they saw it, most “Christians” heard the Bible read in Latin translations that did not use the name.
In time, God’s name came back into use. In 1278 it appeared in Latin in the work Pugio fidei (Dagger of Faith), by Raymundus Martini, a Spanish monk. Raymundus Martini used the spelling Yohoua. Soon after, in 1303, Porchetus de Salvaticis completed a work entitled Victoria Porcheti adversus impios Hebraeos (Porchetus’ Victory Against the Ungodly Hebrews). In this he, too, mentioned God’s name, spelling it variously Iohouah, Iohoua and Ihouah. Then, in 1518, Petrus Galatinus published a work entitled De arcanis catholicae veritatis (Concerning Secrets of the Universal Truth) in which he spells God’s name Iehoua.
Q4- IS IT ALSO TRUE THAT THE KING JAMES VERSION (AUTHOURIZED VERSION) WAS THE FIRST BIBLE TO USE THAT NAME AFTER IT WAS REVEALED BY RAYMUNDUS MARTINI?
No--The name first appeared in an English Bible in 1530, when William Tyndale published a translation of the first five books of the Bible. In this he included the name of God, usually spelled Iehouah, in several verses, and in a note in this edition he wrote: “Iehovah is God’s name . . . Moreover as oft as thou seist LORD in great letters (except there be any error in the printing) it is in Hebrew Iehovah.” From this the practice arose of using Jehovah’s name in just a few verses and writing “LORD” or “GOD” in most other places where the Tetragrammaton occurs in the Hebrew text.
In 1611 what became the most widely used English translation, the Authorized Version, was published. In this, the name appeared FOUR TIMES in the main text. (Exodus 6:3; Psalm 83:18; Isaiah 12:2; 26:4) “Jah,” a poetic abbreviation of the name, appeared in Psalm 68:4. And the name appeared in full in place-names such as “Jehovah-jireh.” (Genesis 22:14; Exodus 17:15; Judges 6:24) However, following the example of Tyndale, the translators in most instances substituted “LORD” or “GOD” for God’s name.
THE REASON WHY KJV DID NOT APPLY IT THROUGHOUT THE OLD TESTAMENT BECAUSE NOT KNOWING FOR SURE IF IT WAS THE WAY IT IS PRONOUNCED.
No; if God’s name could appear in four verses in the Authorized Version, why could it not appear in all the other thousands of verses that contain it in the original Hebrew? If that were the reason then it they would not have put it in at all.
WHY THE J.WITNESSES TRY THEIR HARDEST TO DISCREDIT KJV FOR THE LACK OF USE OF THE NAME JEHOVAH.
We do not single out the KJV, here is an article from one of our magazines--
"JUDAISM is by no means the only religion that avoids using the name of God. Consider the case of Jerome, a Catholic priest and secretary to Pope Damasus I. In the year 405 C.E., Jerome completed his work on a translation of the entire Bible into Latin, which became known as the LATIN VULGATE. Jerome did not include God’s name in his translation. Rather, following a practice of his time, he substituted the words “Lord” and “God” for the divine name. The Latin Vulgate became the first authorized Catholic Bible translation and the basis for many other translations in several languages.
For instance, the DOUAY VERSION, a 1610 Catholic translation, was basically a Latin Vulgate translated into English. It is no surprise, then, that this Bible did not include God’s personal name at all. However, the Douay Version was not just another Bible translation. It became the only authorized Bible for English-speaking Catholics until the 1940’s. Yes, for hundreds of years, the name of God was hidden from millions of devoted Catholics.
Consider also the KING JAMES VERSION. In 1604 the king of England, James I, commissioned a group of scholars to produce an English version of the Bible. Some seven years later, they released the King James Version, also known as the Authorized Version.
In this case too, the translators chose to avoid the divine name, using it in just a few verses. In most instances God’s name was replaced by the word “LORD” or “GOD” to represent the Tetragrammaton. This version became the standard Bible for millions. The World Book Encyclopedia states that “no important English translations of the Bible appeared for more than 200 years after the publication of the King James Version. During this time, the King James Version was the most widely used translation in the English-speaking world.”
The above are just three of the many Bible translations published over the past centuries that omit or downplay the name of God. (end of quote)
DO YOU AGREE WITH MY QUESTIONS?
I too used the KJV for many years, in fact I insisted on using it when I studied with the witnesses all those years ago. They are just one of many translations that have taken the name of God out and I believe they are very wrong to do this.
However translators who have felt obligated to include the personal name of God at least once or perhaps a few times in the main text, though not doing so every time it appears in Hebrew, have evidently followed the example of William Tyndale, who included the divine name in his translation of the Pentateuch published in 1530, thus breaking with the practice of leaving the name out altogether.
