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About Brenda Martin
Expertise
I have been one of Jehovah`s Witneses now for over 30 years, in those years I have brought up 4 children, teaching each of them the bible.Being one of Jehovah`s Witnesses has helped me cope with my Epilepsy and bring up a daughter with learning difficulties.I have conducted bible studies with people from nearly every denomination i.e. Muslim. Having used the bible all these years to answer peoples questions, I feel I am qualified to give any answer regarding Jehovah`s Witnesses and the bible.

Experience
My experience has been one of attending bible lectures 5 times a week,taking part in these lectures in front of an audience and being with thousands of J.W. at conventions where I have seen the bible at work in peoples lives.It is truly a miracle when you see thousands of people meeting together and not one policeman needed, and not even a piece of litter in sight.It is like another world.

 
   

You are here:  Experts > Religion/Spirituality > Christianity - Restorationism > Jehovah`s Witness > Jesus as our Lord and Savior has to be God.

Jehovah`s Witness - Jesus as our Lord and Savior has to be God.


Expert: Brenda Martin - 7/17/2006

Question
I believe 'So, both persons are saviors.' argues the point that Jesus is indeed same nature, different person of the Godhead.  If not, the claim would thereby force glory and worship to another besides God. (Do not worship any other god, for the Lord, whose name is Jealous, is a jealous God. - Exodus 34:14)

The context of Judges excludes it from being compared the way you have.  Of course one can't take a word out of context and make it prove a point.  In no way was Othniel referenced as a savior associated with redemption from sin.  The Septuagint uses the exact same Greek noun in masculine, singular, accusative as used referencing Jesus as Savior of the world (just as in Isaiah 43:11) in Acts 5:31, 13:23, Phil 3:20, and 1 John 4:14.  Three most important things in interpretation: context, context, context.  In Isaiah 43:11, God is savior as in redeemer, as in eternal life giver.  In 1 John 4:14, Jesus is Savior as in Redeemer, as in eternal life giver.  There has to be either two Saviors, which would contradict the truth in Isa. 43, or they have to be the same... both God.  That is not a hasty conclusion.

I believe a more accurate translation of John 1:18 is "No one has ever seen God. The only one, himself God, who is in closest fellowship with the Father, has made God known." as is adequately explained in the NET Bible (www.bible.org).

Thank you for such a prompt response!
Jonathan


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Answer -
"ISAIAH 43:11"

Since Jesus is also referred to as Savior, are God and Jesus the same? Not at all. Titus 1:3, 4 speaks of “God our Savior,” and then of both “God the Father and Christ Jesus our Savior.” So, both persons are saviors.

Jude 25 shows the relationship, saying: “God, our Savior through Jesus Christ our Lord.” (See also Acts 13:23.)

At Judges 3:9, the same Hebrew word (moh•shi´a', rendered “savior” or “deliverer”) that is used at Isaiah 43:11 is applied to Othniel, a judge in Israel, but that certainly did not make Othniel Jehovah, did it?

A reading of Isaiah 43:1-12 shows that verse 11 means that Jehovah alone was the One who provided salvation, or deliverance, for Israel; that salvation did not come from any of the gods of the surrounding nations.

"IS. 45:21"

Those who worship Jehovah, however, find that he has the power to bring about events that he foretold “a long time ago,” including the salvation of his exiled people in Babylon. Such power and foresight set Jehovah apart from all other gods. Truly, he is “a righteous God and a Savior.”

If a certain title or descriptive phrase is found in more than one location in the Scriptures, it should never hastily be concluded that it must always refer to the same person.

Such reasoning would lead to the conclusion that Nebuchadnezzar was Jesus Christ, because both were called “king of kings” (Dan. 2:37; Rev. 17:14);

and that Jesus’ disciples were actually Jesus Christ, because both were called “the light of the world.” (Matt. 5:14; John 8:12)

We should always consider the context and any other instances in the Bible where the same expression occurs.

JOHN 20:28

Does Thomas’ exclamation at John 20:28 prove that Jesus is truly God?

There is no objection to referring to Jesus as “God,” if this is what Thomas had in mind. Such would be in harmony with Jesus’ own quotation from the Psalms in which powerful men, judges, were addressed as “gods.” (John 10:34, 35, RS; Ps. 82:1-6)

Of course, Christ occupies a position far higher than such men. Because of the uniqueness of his position in relation to Jehovah, at John 1:18 (NW) Jesus is referred to as “the only-begotten god.” (See also Ro, By.)

Isaiah 9:6 (RS) also prophetically describes Jesus as “Mighty God,” but not as the Almighty God. All of this is in harmony with Jesus’ being described as “a god,” or “divine,” at John 1:1 (NW, AT).

The context helps us to draw the right conclusion from this. Shortly before Jesus’ death, Thomas had heard Jesus’ prayer in which he addressed his Father as “the only true God.” (John 17:3, RS) After Jesus’ resurrection Jesus had sent a message to his apostles, including Thomas, in which he had said: “I am ascending . . . to my God and your God.” (John 20:17, RS) After recording what Thomas said when he actually saw and touched the resurrected Christ, the apostle John stated: “These are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing you may have life in his name.” (John 20:31, RS) So, if anyone has concluded from Thomas’ exclamation that Jesus is himself “the only true God” or that Jesus is a Trinitarian “God the Son,” he needs to look again at what Jesus himself said (vs. 17) and at the conclusion that is clearly stated by the apostle John (vs. 31).

All the best
Brenda  

Answer
"BOTH PERSONS ARE SAVIORS.' ARGUES THE POINT THAT JESUS IS INDEED SAME NATURE, DIFFERENT PERSON OF THE GODHEAD."

I believed in the false doctrine of the Trinity for 19 years, then I studied the bible for myself and saw no evidence of such a teaching, and over the last 30 years I have studied the subject in the scriptures and I am even more convinced of its falsehood.

The “Godhead” as you put it, was invented in the 4th century by apostate Christians, it was not taught by Jesus and was not believed or taught by his early followers. It is not a bible teaching.

A person who is really seeking to know the truth about God is not going to search the Bible hoping to find a text that he can construe as fitting what he already believes. He wants to know what God’s Word itself says. He may find some texts that he feels can be read in more than one way, but when these are compared with other Biblical statements on the same subject their meaning will become clear.

It should be noted at the outset that most of the texts used as “proof” of the Trinity actually mention only two persons, not three; so even if the Trinitarian explanation of the texts were correct, these would not prove that the Bible teaches the Trinity.

But don’t believe me, research it for yourself.

Brenda


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