About John Bergman Expertise I can answer questions involving the beliefs of Jehovah`s Witnesses and how it conforms and compliments to the holy word, The Bible. My life has been changed for the better after studying with the Witnesses and for anyone who wants to know the certain beliefs of the Witnesses, I can answer their questions.
Experience I have studied and went to religious services for seven years and have been baptized since 1997.
Question Dear John,
Thank you for your reply to my question.
It is true that John 12 includes many words which Jesus was speaking at that time. But it also includes inspired comments by the apostle John. A series of comments by John starts at the end of John 12:36 and continues until verse 43. John explains that many failed to believe in Jesus because the words of the prophet Isaiah (as quoted) had to be fulfilled.
The verses quoted refer (in the Hebrew) both to Adonai and to to Jahweh [Jehovah], on the basis that these two names designate the same Person. The New Testament Greek, as you know, substitutes the word 'Kurios' for Jhwh. In the Old Testament in the KJV, where Jhwh is found, the translators substituted 'LORD' and where Adonai is found they put 'Lord'. And they did the same where Old Testament verses are quoted in the New Testament. In the NWT, the name Jehovah is used to translate Jhwh, but it is also often used in the New Testament to replace Lord, even when the Greek is 'Kurios' and not a quotation from the Old Testament.
However, none of this is strictly relevant to my question. Really the nub of my question concerns the words "his" and "him" in verse 41.
To whom do these pronouns refer?
In the NKJV, it reads:
'These things Isaiah said when he saw *his* glory and spoke of *him*.' (vs.41)
The NWT is substantially the same here.
These are John's words (thru the Holy Spirit) and the 'his' and 'him' seem to me clearly to refer back to 'Jesus' (vs.36). The Old Testament quotations are given here because John wants to show that the of people's failure to believe what Jesus was saying was actually predicted by God thru Isaiah several hundred years earlier.
After quoting these, John seems to say that Isaiah saw Jesus' glory when he had the vision reported in Isaiah 6. The entire passage in John relates to Jesus and not to his heavenly Father.
You don't seem to agree with me, but I can't see the logical basis for your disagreement.
Could you kindly clarify this?
Thank you again, yours sincerely, MT
Answer Dear sir:
I tried to do the best I could involving your question and I would advise possibly that you can take this to the Jehovah's Witnesses website: www.watchtower.org. Hopefully, somebody there can answer this better that I tried.
