About John Bergman Expertise I can answer questions involving the beliefs of Jehovah`s Witnesses and how it conforms and compliments to the holy word, The Bible. My life has been changed for the better after studying with the Witnesses and for anyone who wants to know the certain beliefs of the Witnesses, I can answer their questions.
Experience I have studied and went to religious services for seven years and have been baptized since 1997.
Question Dear John,
Thank you for your reply to the question based on John 12:36-31 which I sent you.
I will try to state it more clearly, although this will require a longer statement of my thought.
The passage in John concerns Jesus and what he was doing in the land of Israel at that time. It starts:
“These things Jesus spoke, and departed, and was hidden from them.
But although he [= Jesus] had done so many signs before them, they did not believe in him [= Jesus], that the word of Isaiah the prophet might be fulfilled, which he spoke:”
[vss. 36-38, then 2 quotations from Isaiah follow (Isaiah 53:1 + 6:10)]
Then verse 41 states:
“These things Isaiah said when he saw his glory and spoke of him.” (vs.41)
Whose glory did Isaiah see? From this passage is it evident that Isaiah saw the glory of the same person whom John calls “Jesus”.
How do I arrive at this? Because in this passage, no other person appears to whom the word “his” (in the phrase “his glory”) can apply.
When we turn to Isaiah to see the description of the glory which Isaiah saw, we find that it written “In the year that King Uzziah died, I saw the Lord sitting on a throne, high and lifted up, and the train of his [robe] filled the Temple.” (6:1)
Above the throne seraphim were standing. These seraphim called out to each other:
“Holy, holy, holy is JHWH [Jehovah] of hosts [or armies]; the whole earth is full of His glory!” (vs.3)
Isaiah's reaction was to confess that his eyes had seen “the King, JHWH [Jehovah] of hosts [or armies]” (vs.5).
Therefore, the one whose glory appeared was Jahweh [Jehovah]. Therefore, Isaiah saw Jahweh [Jehovah]. This One is same One whom John called “Jesus” (vss.36, 37, 41)
If so, this would reveal that the name Jahweh [Jehovah] is used of both the God the Father and the Son of God.
What are your thoughts on this passage?
I hope this now makes sense. I can't think of a clearer way to put it.
Thank you for your consideration of this matter.
Yours, MT.
Answer Dear MT:
I do understand the question now. When I read the whole of John chapter 12, it seems to me that Jesus is the one who is speaking the things to the crowds and explaning their questions, so when he tells of what Isaiah has said and prophesied, it is not of himself, it is of the father. in the true original Greek scriptures, many times the word LORD means Jehovah when it is used in the Greek and is capitalized.
If this dosen't answer your question, sir, I will try and do more research. However, you can also find the answer very quickly, if you go to the Jehovah's Witnesses' website: www.watchtower.org.
