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About Brenda Martin
Expertise
I have been one of Jehovah`s Witneses now for over 30 years, in those years I have brought up 4 children, teaching each of them the bible.Being one of Jehovah`s Witnesses has helped me cope with my Epilepsy and bring up a daughter with learning difficulties.I have conducted bible studies with people from nearly every denomination i.e. Muslim. Having used the bible all these years to answer peoples questions, I feel I am qualified to give any answer regarding Jehovah`s Witnesses and the bible.

Experience
My experience has been one of attending bible lectures 5 times a week,taking part in these lectures in front of an audience and being with thousands of J.W. at conventions where I have seen the bible at work in peoples lives.It is truly a miracle when you see thousands of people meeting together and not one policeman needed, and not even a piece of litter in sight.It is like another world.

 
   

You are here:  Experts > Religion/Spirituality > Christianity - Restorationism > Jehovah`s Witness > KJV

Jehovah`s Witness - KJV


Expert: Brenda Martin - 2/24/2006

Question
Brenda, you said,

[quote]I used to think that about JW's and the NWT, you see I was a Protestant and attended church for 19 years using the KJV, so when the Witnesses called at my home, I had no intention of using, what I saw as; “their” bible, during my study with them I used my KJV and they used the NWT, I became a Witness studying the KJV, not the NWT. Which proves ALL bibles carry the same message.[/quote]

See what the KJV says as far as 1 Timothy 3:16, 1 John 3:16, and Acts 20:28...
How can you say all bibles carry the same message?
Notice Acts 20:28 says (Son) in brackets too.
Love in Christ, Laurie  

Answer
"KJV--1 TIMOTHY 3:16, 1 JOHN 3:16, AND ACTS 20:28."

As I've said before, they all carry the same message, but that does not mean mistakes haven't crept in, that's why its good to have more than one translation of the bible so we can compare them.

1.---1TIMOTHY 3;16--. The King James Version reads: “God was manifest in the flesh,” in referring to Christ Jesus.

However today, MOST translations (not just the NWT) omit any reference to “God” in this text. So why have do these other translations omit the word God, well a little bit of digging revels why--

In the Alexandrine codex (the first of the ancient Bible manuscripts made accessible to scholars) the contraction for “God,” formed by two Greek letters “ÈC,” appears originally to have read “ÏC,” the word for “who.” Obviously, this meant that Christ Jesus was not “God.”

It took more than 200 years and the discovery of other older manuscripts to confirm the rendering “who” or “which” as being correct.

When the Codex Sinaiticus ( oldest known complete copy of the Christian Greek Scriptures) was discovered it helped scholars to uncover errors that had crept into later manuscripts. For example, the reference to Jesus at 1 Timothy 3:16 The Sinaiticus reads: “He was made manifest in the flesh.”

Sinaiticus was made many years before any Greek manuscript reading “God.” So these scholars revealed that there had been a later corruption of the text, evidently introduced to support the Trinity doctrine.

So it is not something invented by JW's, Scholars etc. compared the Alexandrine codex with the oldest manuscript; Codex Sinaiticus, and they found the later one to be wrong and consequently the KJV incorrect in its rendering.

But even with that mistake in it I found out the truth about Jesus, because I didn't just look at this verse and say “oh well Jesus must be God” I looked at many other scriptures in the KJV and they said the opposite, I believed the bible has to be in harmony all the way through, so I dug further. This information is what I found.

2.---The oldest manuscripts render (1 John 3:) for “we have come to know love, because that one [Jesus Christ] surrendered his soul [or, “life”]

3.---Acts 20;28 KJV reads—“to feed the Church of God which he bought with his own blood.”  

Again lets compare what other translations say—

The 1971 edition of the Revised Standard reads- “with the blood of his own Son.”

So which is correct, well it has to be the one that agrees with the rest of scripture does it not? So what do other scriptures say—

1 John 1:7,says: “The blood of Jesus his [God's] Son cleanses us from all sin”(See also Revelation 1:4-6.)

As stated in John 3:16, did God send his only-begotten Son, or did he himself come as a man, so that we might have life? It was the blood, not of God, but of his Son that was poured out, we have to conclude.

ALL BIBLES CARRY THE SAME MESSAGE?

Yes ,despite these mistakes a person can still come to an accurate knowledge of truth, for instance ,all bibles tell us; what God's purpose is for the earth and mankind—

“Blessed are the meek: for they shall inherit the earth.”—Matthew 5:5, King James Version.

The meek shall inherit the earth; and shall delight themselves in the abundance of peace.”—Psalm 37:11, KJ.

The King James version of the Bible has been printed on the Watchtower Society's own presses for use by Jehovah's Witnesses in their door to door work.

All the best
Brenda


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