Expert: Brenton Hepburn - 10/1/2004

Question
Hello there...In john 1:1 most bibles have translated that the word "was God" however the NWT has translated that the word was "a god" I have heard the argument that since there is not a definate article  then it should be translated that way in greek.However if that is true in the greek then this would apply to the greek through out the bible.For instance "Blessed be the peace makers ,for they will be sons of a god"MATHEW 5:9 also "There came a man who was sent from a god"john1:6. And luke 1:35,78, romans 1:7,17,18; 1 cor.1:30;15:10 John1:6,12,13,18 and many others.If that is the greek rule then we would end up with some rather stange readings.Also if john had intended to say that the word was just devine he had a proper greek adjective (theios) had he wanted to comunicate that.But John says the word "Theos" Also jesus is called THE GOD anway John 20:28 Wich in greek reads "The Lord of me and (ho theos)The god of me"Also if you take a look at luke 20:38 Jehovah is called just "A GOD" "He is not a God of the dead but a god of the living"luke 20.38.Thank you I hope you can get in touch soon ,simon...


Answer
Hello Simon,

You have raised a very important question that has been a source of controversy over the last 50 years since the Greek portion of the NWT was released.  The first person to bring this up was a Scholar by the name of Metzger in 1953.

I would generally agree with you about the other verses if the problem was “the argument that since there is not a definate article  then it should be translated that way in greek”.  It is correct that in the Greek language there is no definite article that is “a” or “an”.  Just to explain what that is for any one reding this reply that does not understand the definite article is the word “the” and indefinite is “a”.  To illustrate if you are to go to say a restaurant that has many table settings and you particularly wanted the one by the window you would ask for the table by “the” window. Here you are being definite as to which particular table you wanted.  If you were happy to sit at any table then you want “a” table in that restaurant, or one of many.

How does that apply to John 1:1  Bellow I will give the word for word English translation of the Greek using the Greek grammer.


In beginning was the Logos and the Logos was toward the God and god was the Logos  

The NWT rendering is

In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was a god

The RSV rendering is

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
For many years the cry of critics was "It overlooks entirely an established rule of Greek grammar which necessitates the rendering, ‘. . . and the Word was God.'" Another comments that the translation "a god" is "erroneous and unsupported by any good Greek scholarship . . . rejected by all recognised scholars of the Greek language." And yet another notes that it shows "ignorance of Greek grammar."—Italics added.”  The basic argument was that the NWT did not follow the rules of Greek Grammar.  Modern critics if the NWT no longer use that as a criticism of the NWT.

The old thoughts were based on a miss reading of a rule known as Colwell's rule. About 15 years ago scholars started investigating Colwell's rule more closely discovered that it had been abused by earlier critics.

Now back to John 1 and the “a god”.  Now all reputable scholars agree that this appearance of the word god is a “singular anarthrous predicate nouns occurring before the verb”.  In the original Greek,   “..and god was the Logos“ the word god is the singular anarthrous  predicate noun and the word “was” is the verb.  The word anarthrous means without the definite article. A predicate noun is a noun that affirms as a quality, attribute, or property of a person or thing. In the passage of John 1 the phrase “and god was” is describing something about the Logos. It is talking about a quality not identity.

I will give an illustration in a non theological context to demonstrate how this works.  First I will right a sentence using the same Greek grammar as John 1:1 but just changing a couple of words.  I will then reproduce it in the same way as the NWT 2) does and then the same way as the RSV does. 3)

1) In beginning was the apprentice and the apprentice was toward the builder and builder was the apprentice

2) In the beginning was the apprentice, and the apprentice was with the builder and the apprentice was a builder

3) In beginning was the apprentice and the apprentice was with the builder and the apprentice was the builder.

The last appearance of the word builder in 1) and 2) tells us something about the work of  or a quality of the apprentice. He is a builder but not the builder.

In Number 3) (for the sake of English grammar) I had to add the word the befor the last appearance of the word builder to keep it in line with the rendering of John 1:1 in the RSV.  Can you see the difference?

Number 3 says that the apprentice was the same person as the builder, whereas 1) and 2) acknowledge the different identities but the same attribute or quality of the apprentice.

Now we know the meaning of the word builder being someone who makes something. When ever we put something together we are building that thing.  There is confusion in the English about the meaning of the word God.  Generally we see the word god as applying to a deity of some sort that is worshiped in some form of religious sense.

In the Original language of the Bible the word god basically meant a mighty one and was used when speaking of the God of heaven, false gods that were worshiped, angels and men.  It had a broader meaning then just a deity.

In many of the texts you refer to there is a difference in that the word god with out the indefinite article is not preceding a verb and the word god is referring to an identity not a quality. The context and rules of grammar do not necessitate the addition of the word “a”.

 In Luke 20 :38  there is no “a” in the original Greek and most Bibles do not put in either an “a” nor a “the” in that instance.  Some do for example the NWT , YLT and WEY do add “a”.  Here is WEY. version “He is not a God of dead, but of living men, for to Him are all living." Putting in the “a” pr leaving it out has no theological impact and neither does it violate any rules of Greek Grammar, in fact it does not violate any English grammar rules either.

SO basically it is the rules of Greek Grammar and the context of John 1:1 that makes it necessary for the insertion of the indefinite article “a”

For some more information on this please see my web site.


homepages@picknowl.com.au/hepburn/nwt.htm

If you require any further information or clarification of what I have presented please feel free to contact me

Brenton