hi john, Im still searching; thanks for your teachings it's great news for one who was preached different info on the scriptures; but all the same i'm still in thought of the jewishness, hebrew thinking picks of Y'shua, like John. so again "the word"? I get the greek logos, but John wasn't greek in thought right? Hebrew "word" would be "dabar", the same as the targums later translation into aramaic "memra". This giving to the thought that God's word is his creative, or physical manifestation of God appears. So we have the thought of gen 1:27, so God created man in his own image,..that thought is God creates..I think "torah" means teaching, instruction..Philo taught something like logos was the image of God, as well as devine man..Jewish rabbis do not look favorable on him though due to his person of the godhead teaching..Lots of mind spining here but i know My Father will help us figure it out..but doesn't the TaNaKh teach that the angel of yehovah is really the presence of Yehovah Himself?sounding some influence there. Have also heard the scriptures are the inerrant word of God so leave it at that..Am i digging to deep?what's your teaching on the new testament being originally in hebrew thought but translated to greek for the gentile conversion?Y'shua spoke hebrew, aramaic, greek../ He is the son of God he could speak in any languge but really he was the perfect pharisitic tzitzi wearing jew of His time..so torah would then mean nomos in the greek right? then it is said logos means the devine word or reason incarnate in Jesus Christ.(jn1:1-14). here we go again sorry if i'm offending you as i know you believe different. but why did john say it that way? it seems that john believes Y'shua is incarnate of God, the very flesh representation of his Father..john's later epistles 1,2,3 seem to expand on this, Light Love and truth..awesome insight relation of the Lord Y'shua..also concerning me is paul's quoted of Isa 45:23 as many others but "I have sworn by myself, the word is gone out of my mouth in righteousness and shall not return, that unto me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear" and applied it directly to Y'shua; therefore God has exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above every name, so that at the name of Jesus(Y'shua)every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and every tongue confess that Jesus the Messiah is Lord, to the glory of God the Father."(phil 2:9-11, rom 14:11) john also identifies Y'shua with Adonai the "first and the last" (Isa 44:6, rev 22;13) or Y'shua is melekh ha Masshiach, the king of Israel..so Y'shua said; "who ever doesn't honor the son doesn't honor he Father who sent him (jn5:22-23).. help me understand your thoughts shlomo..these are teachings i was taught..?? thanks
There are differing opinions about the language of the New Testament. In my opinion it was written in Hebrew and then translated into Greek and then, from Greek into Aramaic and Latin. The original Hebrew texts were destroyed by the Vatican as part of their anti-Judaizing campaign. Hence, to me the "Word" is clearly a reference to Torah and doubtless said Torah there in the original texts. A first century observant Jewish writer would not write favorably of Greek nor Gnostic philosophy. The Word of HaShem is Torah. This is the only meaning that makes sense there in my opinion. People view these things in different ways of course.
When writing to Jews please do not write the Sacred Name. We view this as offensive to HaShem as I discuss here: http://allfaith.com/being/name.html
HaShem is echad, utterly One. Therefore He is One with His Name, with His Qualities, with His Attributes and so on. There is no division within Him.
Many religious Jews of the first century considered speaking Greek as dirty. Hellenism posed a serious threat to our people. Hebrew however was not the common language at that time. Aramaic was commonly spoken for secular matters. Religious matters were conducted in Hebrew.
You are making philosophical leaps based on something that neither he nor the text) said. In the beginning was Torah... This is the only understanding that makes sense contextually, historically and textually.
This is too long and has too many run on ideas without paragraphs, sentence breaks etc. I think I've addressed you main pints however.
According to Torah HaShem is One. He has no incarnations etc. like the Pagan gods do. The realization of Avram makes that clear. Shema makes that clear. The New Testament makes that clear when read as it is. I have many good studies on my website that make help clarify these things for you.