You are here:

Orthodox Judaism/you probably get this alot..

Advertisement


Question
but sex with ones wife for pleasure:

sin or no sin?

if considered a sin, is this a law of G-D 100% or a law made by man in hopes
of being congruent with G-D's will? If so, then surely to follow this law
wholeheartedly is a sin: because the torah says to "beware the laws of man."
There's a girl i like and want to have as my wife. I would not like excuses on
the nature of whether or not it is only a sin for a JEWISH man to have sex for
pleasure with ones wife- for if the Torah says it is a sin, i consider it a sin-
regardless of the gentile system i am told to follow.

thankyou for your time.


Peter

Answer
Peter,
Thank you for the kind question. Marital relations with one's spouse are permitted regardless of the motivation (ie pleasure versus procreation). Sex as dirty or something to be ashamed of is a Christian (Pauline) invention. The first commandment is "To be fruitful and multiply". However, I know of no one who considers procreation as the only approved reason to sleep with one's wife. So to answer your question, in general terms, "No sin". You should, however, check with your religious leader concerning times when intercourse may not be permitted and approved methods of birth control. Shalom!

Orthodox Judaism

All Answers


Answers by Expert:


Ask Experts

Volunteer


Ovadiah ben Avraham

Expertise

Willing to answer and research general Halakhah questions in any field, including medical ethics. No synagogue or ritual type questions except by non-Jews looking for a brief summary.

Experience

Yeshiva and self-study

Organizations
Jewish Spiritual Humanism

Education/Credentials
Doctorate Degree

©2012 About.com, a part of The New York Times Company. All rights reserved.