if considered a sin, is this a law of G-D 100% or a law made by man in hopes
of being congruent with G-D's will? If so, then surely to follow this law
wholeheartedly is a sin: because the torah says to "beware the laws of man."
There's a girl i like and want to have as my wife. I would not like excuses on
the nature of whether or not it is only a sin for a JEWISH man to have sex for
pleasure with ones wife- for if the Torah says it is a sin, i consider it a sin-
regardless of the gentile system i am told to follow.
thankyou for your time.
Peter
Answer Peter,
Thank you for the kind question. Marital relations with one's spouse are permitted regardless of the motivation (ie pleasure versus procreation). Sex as dirty or something to be ashamed of is a Christian (Pauline) invention. The first commandment is "To be fruitful and multiply". However, I know of no one who considers procreation as the only approved reason to sleep with one's wife. So to answer your question, in general terms, "No sin". You should, however, check with your religious leader concerning times when intercourse may not be permitted and approved methods of birth control. Shalom!
