Orthodox Judaism/Torah Law question


I wanted to ask about the hebrew word "mishkebi" or "lyings of a woman" as referred to in Gen. 49:4, Lev. 18:22 and 20:13. From what the Rabbis have written, lyings of women are anal and vaginal intercourse. In Num. 31:17,18,36 and Judges 21:11-12, Moses and Eleazar had commanded that all females who had not known mishkev "lying of man" to be killed. I'm assuming that lyings of a woman can't be experienced without lying of a man being experienced simultaneously. They are one with each other. In this case, a woman would be considered as having experienced the lying of a man whether she had experienced anal or vaginal intercourse. This is my question. One could tell through the breaking of the hymen that vaginal intercourse had gone on. How would it have been known whether or not anal intercourse had happened? Say a woman had had anal intercourse but not vaginal, how would it have been known in order to kill her?

They were made aware through supernatural means.
They passed all women in front of the "tzitz", one of the priestly garments that contained within it the ineffable Name.
The women who were to be executed were identified by a change in their skin coloring.
Hope this helps.

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Tzvi Frank


As a scholar of Judaic Studies & Ethics for close to 25 years, I am happy to answer any of your questions regarding Jewish Law and its meaning as well as general Jewish philosophy. Thousands of years of Jewish religious scholarship teaches us to always ask questions. From the Talmud to this very day, scholars have been consistently questioning premises and concepts that exist in Jewish thought. Never be afraid to ask! The answer may change your life. I will not answer questions pertaining to Christianity or Jesus.


I have been a scholar of Jewish Studies & Ethics for close to 25 years and I have been responding to online questions for close to 10 years.

Have been published in numerous (Hebrew) Academic publications.

B.A. in Judaica Studies and Ethics.

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