Question I read over this article on the website on Aish.com carefully and I have these questions...
I need to know where and why I should come to the faith of my fathers?
JESUS DID NOT EMBODY THE PERSONAL QUALIFICATIONS OF MESSIAH
A. Jesus was not a prophet. Prophecy can only exist in Israel when the land is inhabited by a majority of world Jewry.
Can you point to the reference that prophecy can ONLY exist in Israel when all the Jewish people are there?
The Messiah will lead the Jewish people to full Torah observance. The Torah states that all mitzvot remain binding forever, and anyone coming to change the Torah is immediately identified as a false prophet. (Deut. 13:1-4)
Throughout the New Testament, Jesus contradicts the Torah and states that its commandments are no longer applicable. For example, John 9:14 records that Jesus made a paste in violation of Shabbat, which caused the Pharisees to say (verse 16), "He does not observe Shabbat!"
I do not see how Yeshua contradicted the Torah, but always advocated it, the written that is….I do not see where He ever said it was done away with, in fact
Matthew 5:17 clearly says:“ Think not that I have come to abolish the Law, but I have come to fulfill it….He was telling people that it must be obeyed! That it is not done away with.
It’s the churches today that interpret that the LAW is done away with..that it is no longer in effect since Yeshua died for our sins.
-As for the making of the “paste” …can you explain this…is this part of the ORAL tradition? I understood this to mean that ALL the EXTRA traditional laws that the fathers have added were a burdened to the people, and that He came to fulfill the Torah…by bringing it to an understanding of how Hashem “originally” intended it to be…a light yoke.
3) MISTRANSLATED VERSES "REFERRING" TO JESUS
Biblical verses can only be understood by studying the original Hebrew text -- which reveals many discrepancies in the Christian translation.
In my research and study, I am finding this out myself with MANY passages, but not all…that’s why I am asking and seeking more about the passages regarding the Moshiach..
A. VIRGIN BIRTH
The Christian idea of a virgin birth is derived from the verse in Isaiah 7:14 describing an "alma" as giving birth. The word "alma" has always meant a young woman, but Christian theologians came centuries later and translated it as "virgin." This accords Jesus' birth with the first century pagan idea of mortals being impregnated by gods.
I have read this passage and also AGREE wholeheartedly…it seems to say that the sign only pertained to the present situation that Judah was facing at that time…..
B. CRUCIFIXION
The verse in Psalms 22:17 reads: "Like a lion, they are at my hands and feet." The Hebrew word ki-ari (like a lion) is grammatically similar to the word "gouged." Thus Christianity reads the verse as a reference to crucifixion: "They pierced my hands and feet."
Are there any other passages in Tanach that use the term “piercing hands and feet”?
C. SUFFERING SERVANT
Christianity claims that Isaiah chapter 53 refers to Jesus, as the "suffering servant."
In actuality, Isaiah 53 directly follows the theme of chapter 52, describing the exile and redemption of the Jewish people. The prophecies are written in the singular form because the Jews ("Israel") are regarded as one unit. The Torah is filled with examples of the Jewish nation referred to with a singular pronoun.
Ironically, Isaiah's prophecies of persecution refer in part to the 11th century when Jews were tortured and killed by Crusaders who acted in the name of Jesus.
From where did these mistranslations stem? St. Gregory, 4th century Bishop of Nanianzus, ."
In reading the passages in Isaiah beginning in chapter 40 and onward, I can see how it speaks of Israel being the “Servant”…being as one unit….but can you tell me how this stemmed from the statement of St. Gregory, 4th century Bishop of Nanianzus?
Also I was told that there are passages in the Talmud that said that Isaiah 53 in past days referred to the Moshiach, but when Christianity was in force….the Rabbi’s changed it to mean Israel…can you give reference to that tractate of the Talmud and clarification.
A. GOD AS THREE?
The Catholic idea of Trinity breaks God into three separate beings: The Father, the Son and the Holy Ghost (Matthew 28:19).
It was explained to me …to understand G-D, its like
-A Mother who is ONE = Father
-But switching hats, she can be a Wife= Son of G-d
-And switch of the hat again= president of her company= Spirit of G-d
*Even though she is still ONE person, and the SAME person…she can be manifested different ways depending on the ROLE she must perform.
Others say, it’s just a mystery, while others say HE is G-D, he can decide to change in any way, at any time HE wishes WITHOUT the consent of men.
And this would explain how “The Angel of G-d” spoken about many times in the Tanach refers to the pre-incarnate Yeshua (Moshiach)…the one that the Patriarchs, among MANY in history looked forward and had faith in and looked forward to His coming…
Maimonides devotes most of the "Guide for the Perplexed" to the fundamental idea that God is incorporeal, meaning that He assumes no physical form. As the Torah says: "God is not a mortal" (Numbers 23:19).
Doesn’t this passage mean that He is NOT like a mortal man in which HE has the capability to LIE or change HIS mind as we humans do?
Judaism says that the Messiah will be born of human parents, and possess normal physical attributes like other people. He will not be a demi-god, and will not possess supernatural qualities.
Does this mean that just like Moses, who was not a “demi-god” or who possessed NO supernatural qualities, so to the Moshiach will be? Can this be proven from the Tanach?
In fact, an individual is alive in every generation with the capacity to step into the role of the Messiah. (see Maimonides - Laws of Kings 11:3)
*Apart from quoting “Maimonides” can you show where it is stated in the Torah/Prophets that this statement is so? How can that be?
C. INTERMEDIARY FOR PRAYER?
The Catholic belief is that prayer must be directed through an intermediary -- i.e. confessing one's sins to a priest. Jesus himself is an intermediary, as Jesus said: "No man cometh unto the Father but by me."
In Judaism, prayer is a totally private matter, between each individual and God. As the Bible says: "God is near to all who call unto Him" (Psalms 145:18). Further, the Ten Commandments state: "You shall have no other gods BEFORE ME," meaning that it is forbidden to set up a mediator between God and man.
I totally agree with this!!! But can you explain in what sense “gods” has this meaning or how it was used in antiquity?
D. INVOLVEMENT IN THE PHYSICAL WORLD
Catholic doctrine often treats the physical world as an evil to be avoided. Mary, the holiest woman, is portrayed as a virgin. Priests and nuns are celibate. And monasteries are in remote, secluded locations.
-Can you give more of an example of this please….how the physical world can be viewed as an evil?
6) JEWS AND GENTILES
Jews have never actively sought converts to Judaism because the Torah prescribes a righteous path for gentiles to follow, known as the "Seven Laws of Noah.
If the Torah is good for “mankind”, why doesn’t Judaism teach it to the nations, as Israel is to be a Light to the nations as the Tanach says? And can you tell me why there is a different path for “gentiles” when ALL mankind essentially descended from this one man NOAH after the flood…when the Torah says ALL mankind will worship ONE G-D as ONE, with ONE LAW?
Also, I see that it tells us : God did not make this covenant with our fathers, but with us -- who are all here alive today." (Deut. 5:3)
How can ANYONE be certain that a lot of Gentiles today are not descended from those who stood at the mountain? Only Hashem would know who those descendants would be, and it could have included many gentiles who do not realize this applies to them today…as there were MANY who were not of the seed of Jacob. How else can one explain in this generation there are MANY who are now taking interest in the Torah whereas in times past they did not?
." Maimonides explains that any human being who faithfully observes these basic moral laws earns a proper place in heaven.
Meaning No disrespect at all, but “how can Maimonides, a frail human being as ALL mankind, make a claim of who can merit a place in the World to Come…something that is NOT his to distribute, but is Hashem’s alone?
7) BRINGING THE MESSIAH
Maimonides states that the popularity of Christianity (and Islam) is part of God's plan to spread the ideals of Torah throughout the world.
This is hard to see, both of these are two different ideologies…none of which totally believe in the Torah at all.
Answer 1) Can you point to the reference that prophecy can ONLY exist in Israel when all the Jewish people are there?
A= This is proven by the fact that prophecy ceased with Micah, soon after the desolation of Jerusalem and the taking of the Jewish people captive (outside Israel). The true test of a prophet is twofold: does what they say come true and do they try to bring people to HaShem or to another G-d. I don't think we disagree on point number 2, however, the author of the aish article did. On the first, however, Jesus said that if the Temple was destroyed it would be rebuilt in 3 days. He also said that there were some standing in his audience that would not taste of death until after they saw the advent. Now most Christian authors seem very willing to accept these 'prophecies' as figurative. However, he fortold of literal events that did not occur. Therefore, if he was a prophet, he was a false one.
2) As for the making of the “paste” …can you explain this…is this part of the ORAL tradition?
A= The paste of spittle and clay to heal the blind man's eyes? Yes, this is prohibited on the Sabbath day unless it is a matter of life or limb. Simply, he could have been 'healed' the following day without offense to the Oral Tradition.
3) Are there any other passages in Tanach that use the term “piercing hands and feet”?
A= Not that I'm aware of and as you saw, this is not what the Psalm's verse says at all.
4) From where did these mistranslations stem? St. Gregory, 4th century Bishop of Nanianzus...but can you tell me how this stemmed from (his writings)?
A= Sorry, I'm not familiar with his writings.
5) It was explained to me …to understand G-D, its like
-A Mother who is ONE = Father
-But switching hats, she can be a Wife= Son of G-d
-And switch of the hat again= president of her company= Spirit of G-d
A= But in any role, does she not know something she knew in another role? Jesus said only G-d knew certain things. Did he forget?
6) I totally agree with this! But can you explain in what sense “gods” has this meaning or how it was used in antiquity?
A= I suspect in the same way man 'worships' his money, sex or his computer. All idols are not figurines!
7)Can you give more of an example of this please….how the physical world can be viewed as an evil?
A= I'm not sure that's what the RamBam had in mind. Sex, for example is not seen as dirty in Judaism. Celebacy goes against the first commandment, "Be fruitful and multiply". Certainly there are restrictions but Paul and his ministry would have been "odd ducks" other than perhaps with the Essenes.
8) If the Torah is good for “mankind”, why doesn’t Judaism teach it to the nations, as Israel is to be a Light to the nations as the Tanach says? And can you tell me why there is a different path for “gentiles” when ALL mankind essentially descended from this one man NOAH after the flood…when the Torah says ALL mankind will worship ONE G-D as ONE, with ONE LAW?
A= Try Judaism 101 (on the net) for information on the Noachide Laws. "The one law for the stranger and natural born" refers not to the righteous Gentile, but to the convert. One has to be careful with the word stranger in Biblical narrative, it can refer to either the sojourner (for which the Noachide laws apply) or the convert (for which all the Law applies).
We are a light unto all nations, but, frankly, I think we could do a better job of this. However, the implication is teaching by example, rather than missionizing.
9) Also, I see that it tells us : God did not make this covenant with our fathers, but with us -- who are all here alive today." (Deut. 5:3)
A= Once again, the audience was Jewish. However, I agree with you that we are not in a position to tell people not to obey the law as we do not know who hails from Jewish blood and who does not. If one cannot prove his Jewishness, however, conversion is always an option.
10) Maimonides states that the popularity of Christianity (and Islam) is part of God's plan to spread the ideals of Torah throughout the world.
This is hard to see, both of these are two different ideologies…none of which totally believe in the Torah at all
A= The author, in his excellent book, "Why the Jews rejected Jesus" (I think that's the name), says that Judaism was never meant to be a religion of the masses. The response to circumcision by gentiles wanting to join the church is a good example of one reason why. We see other monotheistic (and Islam, by the way, is more so than Christianity) as franchises toward the final outcome prophecied by Jeremiah (31:31)...the New Covenant.
11) I need to know where and why I should come to the faith of my fathers?
A= I saved this one for last. I will admit I'm still not sure that you are not a Christian trying to find justification for Jesus in the "Old Testament". I don't mean this unkindly, but it is not up to me to convince you of anything. Only you can do that. I will end by saying that it is not us who bear the burden of proof in these matters, byt rather those who have chosen to seperate themselves from Israel and the "status quo".
