AboutDavid Montiel Expertise PLEASE READ THIS BEFORE POSTING YOUR QUESTION: While I am glad to offer HELP
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I can answer general physics questions up to the level of first or second year undergraduate courses. Topics I am familiar with include: classical mechanics (kinematics, dynamics, etc.), electricity and magnetism, optics, thermodynamics, and special relativity. I may not answer questions at an advanced undergraduate or graduate levels. Also please do not expect help with algebra or arithmetic (performing numerical calculations).
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Education/Credentials B.S. in Chemical Engineering
M.S. in Chemical Physics
PhD in Physics.
Question QUESTION: in Maxwell's equation of Faraday's law : "curl(E)= -dB/dt" . It is well known that the right side of the equation implies the left according to Faraday's experiment on induction.Is there any example in which the left side implies the right?I mean can a curl in E produce a CHANGE in magnetic field?I know that change in E produces B but that doesn't answer the question read it once again.
ANSWER: Hello John,
As far as I know the implication works both ways. If you measure a curl in E, there must be necessarily a change in B (if this didn't hold then Faradays's Law would be wrong!). I don't really see it as one being a consequence of the other, but more like a two-way implication.
I hope this helps but please let me know if it doesn't.
David
---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------
QUESTION: For the previous reply ,
Tell me how the left hand side implies the right in the following example :
when current flows through a wound coil due an applied voltage 'V' then the electric field setup is governed by "V=E/distance" . so the electric field is curled , but is there a change in magnetic field as stated in the equation ? NOTE: the word CHANGE
Answer Update:
John,
I've done a little revision of Faraday's Law of induction and I hope I can give you a better answer now.
First of all, regarding your original question: No, you can produce a curl in "E" electrostatically, because the induced "E" in Faraday's law is non-conservative. So the only way to produce a curl in "E" is by a change in "B". In that sense, yes, the former is always a consequence of the latter. However, you have to be careful with the word "implies".
The implication still both goes ways. Imagine you know nothing about a change in "B" yet somehow manage to measure a curl in "E". Then, there must also be a change in "B", i.e. Faraday's law must be satisfied.
In your example about the circuit you have overlooked something important. The electric field in a circuit is NOT curled because the integral of "E" along any closed path (including that of the circuit) must be zero (the tricky part here is that the electric field goes in the opposite direction inside the battery). So, of course, this produces a magnetic field (the current does) but NOT a CHANGE in the magnetic field.
