Hello Pastor G,
I'm currently translating Philip Mauro's book that refutes dispensationalism. I arrived at a part that I need help understanding two things:
(1) what is the word "it" referring to in the sentence located in the last paragraph below: "We recall that the "Scofield Bible" places it in the era of the law"?
(2) Under the heading "GOD HAS SPOKEN: TO THE FATHERS---TO US," Philip Mauro stresses that Jesus came "in the end of the ages". Do you think he is presenting full preterism from the portion of his writings below?
For reference, here is the link to his book: http://www.preteristarchive.com/Books/1927_mauro_gospel-kingdom.html
THE Bible distinguishes--not seven dispensations, each having a character exclusively its own, but two great eras of God's dealings with mankind; the first of which was preparatory to the second, and the second of which is the completion of the first. Their scriptural designations are:
First: The Old Covenant; or the Law and the Prophets; or simply, the Law.
Second: The New Covenant; or the Kingdom of God; or simply, the Gospel.
This division is not man-made, artificial, conjectural; for it comes to us plainly marked in the structure of the Bible itself, which is composed of two grand divisions, the Old Testament, and the New Testament. (And it should be noted that the word "Testament" is one of the renderings of a Greek word that is sometimes, as in Hebrews 8:6-10, and should be always, translated "Covenant").
Furthermore those two grand divisions of the Bible are clearly marked and separated, the one from the other, by the long stretch of time that intervened between them, there being a period of four hundred years between the last Book of the Old Testament and the first events (Luke I) recorded in the New.
GOD HAS SPOKEN: TO THE FATHERS---TO US.
This scriptural division of God's dealings with men into two great eras is referred to in a number of passages. I have already cited Luke 16:16, "The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the Kingdom of God is preached," and John 1:17, "For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ." Another passage that clearly distinguishes them and also sheds light upon the whole subject is Hebrews 1:1, 2, "God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spoke in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, hath in
these last days spoken unto us by His Son."
By this passage we learn that God has spoken in two different eras: (1) "in time past," and (2) "in these last days." Here we have something certain, and therefore we can safely build upon it. How valuable is the information that these days of the Gospel of Christ are "the last days"! But the dispensationalists must explain away the meaning of these words because, for one reason, their scheme provides for at least one dispensation after the termination of the Gospel era. There are, however, other passages that confirm and settle the meaning of this one. Thus Peter, speaking of the pouring out of the Holy Spirit
on the day of Pentecost, said: "This is that which was spoken by the prophet Joel: And it shall come to pass in the last days saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh" (Acts 2:16, 17); which plainly locates the day of Pentecost in the era which God's Bible calls "the last days."
Likewise the same apostle writes concerning Jesus Christ as the Lamb of God, without blemish and without spot, saying: "Who verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you." (I Pet. 1:19, 20). And the apostle John says with characteristic brevity and emphasis: "Little children, it is the last time" (I John 2-18).
Then we have the words of Paul who, referring to the things that befell the Israelites in the wilderness, said: "Now all these things happened unto them for ensamples; and they are written for our admonition upon whom the ends of the world (lit, the ends of the ages) are come" (I Cor. 10:11). And again it is written concerning the first coming of Christ that "now once in the end of the world hath He appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself" (Heb. 9:26). It is worthy
of special note that this last passage contains the adverb of time, "now," emphasizing the fact that the period of our Lord's coming and of His sacrifice belongs to "the end of the ages." We recall that the "Scofield Bible" places it in the era of the law, and does so for the purpose of separating His words (and particularly His Sermon on the Mount) from us, God's children, and allocating them to an imaginary Jewish Kingdom of a supposed future dispensation. How satisfying to the heart, and how fatal to this modernistic and pernicious error are
the words of Hebrews 1:1, 2, quoted above, which plainly declare that God "hath in these last days spoken UNTO US by His Son"!
Hello, Nathan. Are you in Florida now>
I am not familiar with this work at all, so thank you for providing the text (and the link, although I'm afraid I don't have time to read the whole work right now).
1) That "it" is ambiguous. I've read it several times, and I'm not sure what he is referring to. There was a school of thought referred to as hyper-dispensationalism, or ultra-dispensationalism that taught that the Sermon on the Mount was not for the Church, but for a Jewish Kingdom which would have come if they had accepted his message then, and will come later because he didn't. That would be my best guess as to what he is referring to, but statement is vague.
2) Not knowing anything about the man, I can't say what his eschatology might be, but there is nothing in the text I read that would indicate that he thought everything in regard to God's dealing with the world in Christ was not in the past. I'd recommend "The Coming of the Kingdom" by Herman Ridderbos, which will give a good and full explanation of NT eschatology, and which it appears the author you cite is speaking of.