Seventh-Day Adventists/1843 or 1844
QUESTION: I'm curious why the SDA's teach Jesus crucified on a Friday in 31 AD. According to the daily cycle/weekly cycle and lunar cycle, (scriptures of time); the Passover in 31 AD occured on a Monday.
I did some checking into this since we are supposed to test the spirits to see if they are speaking according to the Law and Testimony and what I found is that SDA's use a theory that takes them past the seventh year of the kings Reign concerning Artexerxes.
When the correct year is illustrated in concert with other time specific prophecies, you can see that prophecy has alignments in earth history with other time specific prophecies.
I found over 9 time specific prophecies come into alignment in 30 AD where there is evidence for Prophecy fulfilment in accordence with the prophecies conerning time.
I found a major issue with the concept of the Friday Crucifixion as illustrated on this next chart. What do you think? Is it the Prophecies that are wrong, or is it the traditions and doctrines of men that are wrong? Or is Jesus simply a myth?
ANSWER: Hi Todd,
Thank you for your question.
The prophecy that you are mentioning is in Daniel 9:24-27
70 weeks are determined for “your people” (Daniels people) – Literal Jews during the time of Daniel.
70 x 7 = 490yrs (see Numbers 14:34, Ezekiel 4:6 for prophetical day/yr principal)
In Vs. 25 we read that the 490yrs starts; “forth of the command to restore and build Jerusalem”. There are four decree’s that went out to rebuild Jerusalem..but only one that not only rebuilds, but also “restores”. This particular decree was done in 457BC by Artaxerxes (Ezra 7:1-27).
From the start date of 457BC and we add 490yrs we come to 34AD*.
*490 – 457 = 33 (plus “1” because there is no zero year) brings us to 34AD. (“1BC” - 0 - “1AD”)
We now have our start date and our end date.
The date of the Messiah coming (“anointed one”) we also get from Vs. 25 – We see that the Messiah comes after the 69 weeks. In Vs. 27 we see that the Messiah will confirm the covenant for 1 week (the 70th week of the 70 weeks determined).
So we have 7yrs (the last week of the prophecy as mentioned above) which is 27AD to 34AD that were allocated for the ministry of the Messiah to “confirm a covenant with many” (Dan 9:27).
In Vs. 27 we read that “in the middle of the week He shall bring an end to sacrifice and offering”. We know that Christ is the perfect lamb of God offered once and for all for our sins. We also know that He paid the price for our sin upon the cross, therefore we can see that in the middle of this final prophetic week Christ was crucified. Seven years divided by two is 3.5…so 3.5 plus 27AD is 30.5 (year 31 is the closest “whole” year).
Matthew 26:2– 2 “You know that after two days is the Passover, and the Son of Man will be delivered up to be crucified.” The Bible specifically states that Christ will be crucified on Passover (not to mention the sacrificial system that also points directly to this date). Mark 16:9, John 20:1 specifically state that He rose on the first day of the week. The first day of the week is the day that comes after Sabbath, since the Sabbath is the seventh day of the week. By this we know that Christ was crucified on Friday, was in the tomb on Sabbath, and then rose on Sunday.
Many quote the Naval Observatory letter as proof that a Friday crucifixion is impossible. Please read the following letter that is more specific in regards to the Jewish paschal moon from the Naval Observatory:
"The astronomical full moon next after the spring equinox of A. D. 31 (Julian calendar) occurred on Tuesday, March 27. The dates of the paschal full moons according to Jewish observance between A. D. 24 and A. D. 38 are uncertain. The rules employed in the present Jewish calendar are of later adoption. . . . The Christian ecclesiastical calendar was not fixed until the Council of Nice, 325 A. D. Some of the questions involved are discussed in the article on 'Bible' in the eleventh edition of the Encyclopedia Britannica (Vol. III, p. 890).
"W.S. Eichelberger, Captain (Math.), U. S. Navy, Director Nautical Almanac."
(Navy Department Letter File, EN23/H5(1)(652)
So with this in mind, we are not able (scientifically) to fully pin point with 100% accuracy the Jewish paschal moon cycle during this time, so it very well could have occurred in 31AD.
Moving on to the 3 days and 3 nights in the tomb idea.
Matt 12:40 tells us that Christ was 3 days and 3 nights, “in the heart of the earth”. Most just assume that the heart of the earth is in the tomb…yet is this true? Where else in the Bible do we see that the “heart of the earth” is equal to the grave? Well we don’t. In using Matt 12:40 we can see directly that it does not mean the tomb. Did Jonah enter the tomb? No…he entered the belly of the fish…he did not die. Yet did Jonah suffer for 3 days and nights? Yes. If you take “suffering” instead of death/grave for the phrase “in the heart of the earth” you are able to more correctly interpret the passage. Christ’s suffering started in the garden of Gethsemane which was actually Thursday night. So now your 3 days and 3 nights are accounted for.
God bless you in your continued studies!!
---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------
QUESTION: So if Jesus was not in the tomb for 3 days and 3 nights, your saying he did not have to fulfill prophecy? I know that if you start the time for "in the heart of the earth" in the Garden as I was told by other Adventists, he comes out of the tomb before 3 days and 3 nights are fulfilled.
The illustration at this link illustrates what im talking about clearly.
ANSWER: Hi Todd,
Your question: "So if Jesus was not in the tomb for 3 days and 3 nights, your saying he did not have to fulfill prophecy?"
ANSWER: No, I am stating the exact opposite. He fulfilled prophecy to the utmost.
Please see below:
Thursday Evening (Gethsemane & trials)
Friday Morning (trials) / Evening (cross/tomb)
Saturday Morning (tomb) / Evening (tomb)
Sunday Morning (tomb)
Three evenings, and three mornings...so He does fulfill the prophecy.
---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------
QUESTION: So are you claiming the book of John to Be lying when it claims Jesus rose from the tomb before the sun came up? The book of John places Mary at the tomb when it was still dark.
Another Question i would like you to answer: If what you claim is truth according to the spirit of truth, why then did Mark tell a lie in Mark 8:31 as seen in the shared link?
The top half of the link illustrates your explination about starting 3 days and 3 nights in the garden even though the author of that illustration claims you are lying in comparison to his perception. If you can explain why your version is more truth and why Mark 8:31 is lying, I may be better able to understand you.
John 20:1-2 "Now on the first day of the week Mary Magdalene went to the tomb early, while it was still dark, and saw that the stone had been taken away from the tomb. 2 Then she ran and came to Simon Peter, and to the other disciple, whom Jesus loved, and said to them, “They have taken away the Lord out of the tomb, and we do not know where they have laid Him.”
Now does this text directly state that Mary was at the tomb at dark? Not really. Why? Well because one can easily interpret the passage as saying that Mary left for the tomb while it was dark. We do not specifically know if the sun was up when she actually got to the tomb or not. So by this there is freedom to interpret the scripture either way. Yet, her arriving after sun rise would more properly fulfill prophecy, and also be coherent with the rest of the Bible. By this we know how it should be correctly interpreted. Matthew 28:1 also states that they at dawn "came to see the tomb" at dawn - I.E. they left to go to the tomb at dawn.
Mark 8:31 "And He began to teach them that the Son of Man must suffer many things, and be rejected by the elders and chief priests and scribes, and be killed, and after three days rise again."
Let me summarize the scripture:
1. He must suffer many things
2. Be rejected by the elders, chief priests, and scribes.
3. be killed
4. after three days rise again
Now I can see how some might want to interpret it as stating "He will be killed, THAN after three days rise again". Yet, that is not what the verse states. So once again there is a certain freedom of interpretation here. Yet in once again going from Isaiah 28:13 which states, "line upon line, here a little, there a little" we can more correctly interpret the passage.
Since Mark did not "lie", there is only one interpretation that it can be...and that would be that the 3 days did not start after He was crucified. In going back to the Bible and Matthew 12:40 we see that the 3 days started on Thursday evening.
May God be with you!