Seventh-Day Adventists/Hebrews 9:23


What is the most convincing interpretation of Hebrews 9:23 to show that the verse isn't related to the cleansing of accumulated sins as taught in the doctrine of the Investigative Judgment? Thanks!


I'm not sure if I understand the intent of your question.  My first reaction is why should any other interpretation be desired or even necessary?  The earthly constructions and services were given as patterns of constructions which were in heaven at that time and of services which would begin taking place in heaven once the Plan of Salvation was ratified by the Son and accepted by the Father.  Christ's Death was the ratification sealed in blood and the Father's Acceptance took place during the seven days between Christ's first ascension, on the day of the Resurrection, and that Sunday a week later when Christ appeared to the disciples in the upper room to show Thomas His Scars.

Just as Christ was Sacrificed once, the earthly sacrifice for sin was sacrificed just once.  But, the blood of that sacrifice was then carried as an offering for cleansing into either the Holy Place or the Most Holy Place depending upon the type of service being performed.  So, too, must Jesus Christ continue to offer His Blood in either the Heavenly Holy Place or the Heavenly Most Holy Place depending upon the type of service being performed.  People continue to be born and people continue to sin.  Thus, continual offering of Christ's Blood from the one sacrifice is required.  For without the offering of His Blood there is no remission from sin.

The earthly sacrificing of animals and the offerings of animal blood were only a symbol -- accepted for cleansing according to the faith involved in believing such sacrifice and offering would achieve that goal as promised by God.  For actual remission and true cleansing from sin, though, better sacrifices and better offerings than those earthly ones are required.  Only the sacrifice of the lawgiver and the offering of His Blood can possibly atone for the sin of breaking that law.  The One who demonstrated His Own perfect obedience to that law is the only one who could be found worthy of such a sacrifice or have such an offering accepted by God -- and which could not be challenged by the fallen Lucifer.

Finally, I hope you aren't trying to imply that the doctrine of the Investigative Judgment is not Biblical.  To be brief...  In John 5:25-30 Jesus plainly states that He has a Judgment to perform.  In both Jeremiah 17:10 and Revelation 2:23 He states that this Judgment will involve an investigation.  In the Hebrew that word "search" is "chqar" (Strong's H2713) which means to "penetrate by intimate examination."  In the Greek that word "searcheth" is "ereunao" (Strong's G2045) which means to "seek" (in an inquiry) and to "investigate."

May God richly bless you in direct proportion to your desire to know, and to do, the full truth even as it is in Yehsh' haMshyach, Jesus Christ, The Messiah, our Lord, and our Saviour.  Awmane!


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Dave L Clark


I can answer most any question which is truly Bible-centric. I make this distinction because there is much which is considered biblical; but, which, is actually based only upon the traditions of men. However, I will also state this caveat: not all traditions are necessarily "bad" by definition. Otherwise, the subject about which I am passionate is The Law of God. There is much misconception in this area. In point of fact, I, myself, only woke up a bit over 10 years ago (2002) to what is truly meant by the Law of God and how that relates to Salvation. This, of course, is a touchy subject when you start mixing the Law of God with the subject of Salvation -- which, everyone should know, is a gift of God, by grace, through faith and not of works; lest any man should boast (Eph. 2:8,9). I am thankful that God the Holy Spirit has opened, and is opening, my eyes to these Truths.


I have taken Bible classes every year since the first grade through 4-year college level and study the Bible every week with others in Sabbath School. I have also continued studying the Bible, on my own, throughout my life -- particularly these last 10+ years. Therefore, I consider myself to have about 48+ years of both formal and informal Bible experience upon which to draw.

I am a current member in good and full standing with the Seventh-Day Adventist Church. I am also a level-7 member of Yahoo!Answers in the Religion & Spirituality group. Lastly, though not a related discipline, I am also a member at because of my professional standing as a computer programmer of more than 35 years.

"The Truth About the Law of God" by Dave L Clark I is a 298-page book available at Some of my writings may also be found on the following websites: << >>; << >>; and, << >>.

I have 3 years of formal college and a 4-year college equivalence degree in Information Technology. Otherwise, I am not formally credentialed in Bible doctrine or theology. However, when did God ever say that He only speaks to or through theologian-type or highly-placed sources?

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