About Clare Washbrook Expertise I can answer questions related to the texts, sonnets or to Shakespeare's life. I can help with historical context and language difficulties. I am a secondary school English and Drama teacher in England and can therefore help current students with the texts which they are studying.
DO NOT ASK ME WHERE HE GOT HIS IDEAS FROM! I know that it is a dreadful question to be posed as homework but I have recieved it dozens of times. The answer can be found in past questions.
Experience I fell in love with Shakespeare at a young age and continue to be enthralled. I have studied Shakespeare to undergraduate level and teach Shakespeare to A-level (age 18). I have performed three of his plays. As an amateur etymologist I am familiar with many misconceptions about the meanings, intent and usage of words in the plays which other people are often unaware of.
Educated to post-graduate level.
Published and performance poet.
Former Journalist, former Editor, occassional Private Tutor. Included in OED as the first writer to use a particular word.
Organizations The Poetry Society
Publications The Radio Times, Books by Dogma, "SO" Magazine, NUS publications, Other Poetry, OED, Publications by PTS others
Education/Credentials BA (HONS) Literature (Theatre minor), MA (current accreditation)
Awards and Honors Bronze Award - International Poetry Awards 2004
I am currently on my way to receiving an MA in English linguistics. I recently came across a strange question - about the pronunciation of Shakespeare's rhymes.
Some of them, such as MSND's lines
i.e Night and silence. -- Who is here?
Weeds of Athens he doth wear:
The question asked pertains to the 'reason' why these things no longer rhyme... I was thinking it was due to Great Vowel Shift but I am far from being sure.
(I know this is hardly the sphere of literature, but I really do not know anymore where to look)
I thank you for your time, and apologize in advance if the question is idiotic.
Sincerely,
Ana
Answer Ana-Marija,
The reasons will depends upon the individual rhymes. I cannot give you a generic answer to this.
The example that you give will never have rhymed unless the actor mutated it. Shakespeare was not at all averse to forcing a rhyme or using a half rhyme. The "ea" phoneme was not a part of the Great Vowel Shift, so these two words are still pronounced pretty much the same as they were then. It is evidence of the imperfection of Shakespeare.
There will be rhymes that no longer work because of the Great Vowel Shift, some which do not work because of the natural evolution of language, some which never worked. You need to bear in mind that there was also no standardised language at the time. Language formed itself without constant reference to "properness" in the way that we do, therefore there was more variety of pronunciation and people were used to hearing more variation (so an actor could mangle a word without too much worry).
I hope that helped. There are plenty of references around with basic guides to the effects of the great vowel shift - you can check specific rhymes against such lists/guides to see whether they changed or not. It's not too hard - check vowel sound, count consonants, count syllables etc. Check JSTOR journal database via your Athens account (if you don't have one your University has to give you one) - that should have plenty of info on this.
